28 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE QUESTIONS
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE QUESTIONS
Monomer of nucleic acids are –
A) Peptides
B) Nucleosides
C) Ribonucleosides
D) None of these
DNA and RNA are types of –
A) Nucleotides
B) Nucleosides
C) Nucleic acids
D) Nucleamides
Length of DNA is usually defined as-
A) Number of nucleotides present in it
B) Number of pair of nucleotides present in it
C) Number of base pairs present in it
D) All of these
Match the length of DNA with the correct organisms –
A B
I) Φ × 174 1) 4.6 × 106 bp (base pairs)
II) Bacteriophage γ 2) 3.3× 109 bp
III) E. coli 3) 48502 bp
IV) Human DNA (haploid) 4) 5386 nucleotides
I II III IV
A) 4 3 1 2
B) 3 4 2 1
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 3 4 1 2
A nucleotides contains –
A) Hexose sugar + nitrogenous base + phosphate group
B) Pentose sugar + nitrogenous base + phosphate group
C) Hexose sugar + nitrogenous base + sulphate group
D) Pentose sugar + nitrogenous base + sulphate group
Which of these is a purine –
A) Cytosine
B) Adenine
C) Thiamine
D) More than one is correct
Which of these is a pyrimidine –
A) Adenine
B) Thymine
C) Guanine
D) None of these
Which of these is a correct combination for a DNA nucleotides
A) Oxyribose + Phosphate + Uracil
B) Oxyribose + Phosphate + Thymine
C) Deoxyribose + Phosphate + Uracil
D) Deoxyribose + Phosphate + Thymine
All the given nucleotides exists, except
A) Deoxy uridine
B) Thymine
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
Nitrogenous base is linked to which carbon of pentose sugar
A) 1’C
B) 2’C
C) 3’C
D) 5’C
Nitrogenous base is linked to pentose sugar by which bond –
A) N – Glycosidic bond
B) Phosphoester bond
C) Phosphodiester bond
D) Peptide bond
Phosphate group is linked to which carbon of pentose sugar
A) 1’C
B) 2’C
C) 3’C
D) 5’C
Identify the free ends of given polynucleotides chain –
I II
A) 3’ phosphate 5’ hydroxyl
B) 5’ hydroxyl 3’ phosphate
C) 5’ phosphate 3’ hydroxyl
D) 3’ hydroxyl 5’ phosphate
Backbone of polynucleotide chain is formed due to –
A) Sugar and N-base
B) Sugar and phosphate
C) Phosphate and N – Base
D) All of these
Which is correct about thymine & uracil –
A) Uracil is 5-methyl thymine
B) Thymine is 5-methyl uracil
C) Uracil is 5-ethyl thymine
D) Thymine in 5-ethyl uracil
DNA is –
A) Acidic and positively charged
B) Basic and positively charged
C) Acidic and negatively charged
D) Basic and negatively charged
Name of DNA as ‘Nuclein’ was given by –
A) Francis crick
B) Erwin Chargaff
C) Friedrich Meischer
D) Rosalind Franklin
Double Helix for structure of DNA model was proposed by –
A) Wilkins and Franklin based on their Xray diffraction date
B) Watson and Crick based on their X-ray diffraction date
C) Chargaff based on their X-ray diffraction data
D) None of these
The proposition of base pairing between the two stands of polynucleotide chain in double Helix model of DNA was based on observation of –
A) Maurice Wilkins
B) Rosalind Franklin
C) Erwin Chargaff
D) Both A & B
The two chains of double Helix DNA have –
A) Parallel polarity
B) Anti-parallel polarity
C) No polarity
D) Depends on organism
The bases in two stands of DNA are paired through
A) Hydrogen bond
B) Peptide bond
C) Glycosidic bond
D) Sulfide bond
Which of the following is true about base pairing in DNA –
A) Adenine forms two hydrogen bond with Guanine
B) Adenine forms three hydrogen bond with Guanine
C) Adenine forms two hydrogen bond with Thymine
D) Adenine forms three hydrogen bond with Thymine
Which of the following is true about base pairing in DNA
A) Guanine forms two H-bond with Cytosine
B) Guanine forms three H-bond with Cytosine
C) Guanine forms two H-bond with Adenine
D) Guanine forms three H-bond with Adenine
Uniform distance between two stands of Helix is due to –
A) Double and triple bond formed between base pairs
B) Sugar – phosphate backbone
C) Purine – pyrimidine base pairing
D) None of these
How many of the following statements about Double – helix structure of DNA is correct –
i) Two chains are coiled in right – handed fashion
ii) Pitch of helix is 3.6 nm
iii) There are roughly 10 bp in each turn
iv) Plane of one base pair stacks over the other
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Pitch of helix in double helix DNA is –
A) 3.6 nm
B) 3.4 nm
C) 3.2 nm
D) 3.8 nm
Central dogma in molecular biology was proposed by ––
A) Crick
B) Watson
C) F. Meischar
D) Chragaff
Identify correct labels ––
(i) (ii) (iii)
A) Replication Translation Transcription
B) Replication Transcription Translation
C) Transcription Replication Translation
D) Translation Replication Transcription
If length of E. coli DNA is 1.36 mm, calculate number of base pair in E. coli? Given – distance between consecutive base pairs is 0.34 × 10-9 m. –
A) 4 × 106
B) 4 × 109
C) 4 × 10-6
D) 4 × 1012
Assertion : In E. coli, DNA is scattered throughout the cell
Reason : In E. coli, there is no defined nucleus
A) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
B) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion
C) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect
D) Reason is correct and Assertion is incorrect
Histones are –
A) Positive and acidic in eukaryotes
B) Positive and acidic in prokaryotes
C) Positive and basic in eukaryotes
D) Positive and basic in prokaryotes
Assertion – Histones are positively charged
Reason – Histones are rich in basic amino acid residues lysine and arginine
A) Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
B) Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion
C) Assertion is correct and Reason is wrong
D) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong
Histones are organized into –
A) Hexamer
B) Octamer
C) Tetramer
D) Dimer
A typical nucleosome contain _____ bp of DNA has
A) 200
B) 400
C) 600
D) 800
Repeating unit of chromatin –
A) Are nucleosomes
B) Are seen as ‘beads-on-string’ under electron microscope
C) Are packed to form fibres
D) All of these
The figure show –
A) Beads-on-string
B) A nucleosome
C) Chromatin
D) More than one option is correct
Identify the correct label for given figure
(i) (ii) (iii)
A) H2 histone DNA Histone octamer
B) H1 histone Histone octamer DNA
C) H2 histone Histon octamer DNA
D) H1 histone DNA Histone octamer
Chromosomes are connected chromatin fibres present –
A) At all times in cell
B) Only during cell division – formed at prophase
C) Only during cell division – formed at metaphase
D) Only during cell division – formed at Interphase
In a typical nucleus, euchromatin & hetero chromatin are present. Choose the correct set of characters for heterochromatin –
i) Loosely packed ii) Densely packed
iii) Light stain iv) Dark stain
v) Inactive chromatin vi) Active chromatin
A) i, iii, v
B) ii, iv, vi
C) i, iii, vi
D) ii, iv, v
Choose correct set of characters for euchromatin
i) Loosely packed ii) Densely packed
iii) Light stain iv) Dark stain
v) Inactive chromatin vi) Active chromatin
A) i, iii, v
B) ii, iv, vi
C) i, iii, vi
D) ii, iv, v
Griffith’s experiments were conducted in-
A) 1928
B) 1958
C) 1978
D) 1968
The experiment of Griffith was performed in-
A) Diplococcus pneumoniae, bacteria
B) Haemophilus influenzas, fungi
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae, fungi
D) None of these
Match the given columns-
I II III
R-strain (a) Smooth (1) Mucous coat
S-strain (b) Rough colonies (2) No mucous coat
A) (i)-(a)-(1)
B) (i)-(b)-(1)
C) (ii)-(a)-(1)
D) (ii)-(a)-(2)
Which strain of the microbe used Griffith is virulent-
A) S-strain
B) R-strain
C) Both
D) None
Griffith observed that the mice died surprisingly the following combination of strains was used, which was unusual-
A) S-strain heat killed
B) Heat killed S-strain
C) Heat killed R-strain + Live S-strain
D) Heat killed S-strain + Live R-strain
In Griffith experiment
A) R-strain transformed to S-strain and became virulent
B) R-strain transformed to S-strain and lost virulence
C) S-strain transformed to R-strain and became virulent
D) S-strain transformed to R-strain and lost virulence
Griffith claimed that-
A) Some protein was transferred among bacteria
B) Some DNA was transferred among bacteria
C) Some carbohydrates was transferred among bacteria
D) None of these
Prior to work of Avery, Macleod and McCarty, genetic material was thought to be-
A) Protein
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) None
A very, Macleod & McCarty discovered that-
A) DNA caused transformation
B) RNA caused transformation
C) Protein caused transformation
D) Lipid caused transformation
Which enzyme inhibited the transformation-
A) Protease
B) RNase
C) DNase
D) All
Unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic material came from experiments of-
A) Avery, Macleod & McCarty
B) Hershey and Chase
C) de Vries, Correns and Tschermak
D) Sutton and Boveri
The scientists of Q-11 worked with-
A) a virus
B) a bacteria
C) a fungi
D) a nematode
In the experiment performed for proving DNA as genetic material, the bacteriophages were grown on medium containing-
A) radioactive sulfur
B) radioactive nitrogen
C) radioactive phosphorous
D) More than one option
The bacteriophages growing in presence of radioactive phosphorous __(i)__ contained radioactive __(ii)__.
(i) (ii)
A) P32 DNA
B) P35 Protein
C) P32 Protein
D) P35 DNA
Bacteriophages grown on radioactive Sulphur __(i)__ contained radioactive__(ii)__.
(i) (ii)
A) S32 DNA
B) S32 Protein
C) S35 DNA
D) P35 Protein
The bacteria involved in Hershey & chase experiment of 1952 was-
A) Bacteriophage
B) E. coli
C) S. pneumoniae
D) C. butyliwm
Bacteria infected with virus that showed radioactivity had-
A) radioactive DNA (S32)
B) radioactive DNA (S35)
C) radioactive DNA (P32)
D) radioactive DNA (P35)
Identify the correct label.
1 2 3
A) Blending Infection Centrifugation
B) Infection Blending Centrifugation
C) Centrifugation Infection Blending
D) Blending Centrifugation Infection
RNA is genetic material in-
A) TMV
B) QB Bacteriophage
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
Properties of genetic material include-
A) Stable
B) Mutable
C) Replicable
D) All of these
A – Stability as a property of genetic material was very evident in Griffith’s transforming principle.
R-Heat can kill the bacteria and completely destroy the properties of genetic material
A) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation for R
C) A is true but R is false
D) Both A and R are false
Which is more structurally and chemically stable?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) Protein
D) All
RNA viruses show-
A) Less mutation
B) Faster evolution
C) Slower evolution
D) More than one option is correct
DNA is preferred by nature over RNA for-
A) Storage of genetic information
B) Transmission of genetic information
C) Expression of genetic information
D) More than one
Choose incorrect statement RNA-
A) was first genetic material
B) acts as catalyst too
C) is more stable than DNA
D) has protein synthesizing mechanism built around it
Scheme for replication of DNA was proposed by-
A) Watson & Crick
B) Meselson & Stahl
C) Taylor
D) Hershey & Chase
The replication of DNA is-
A) Conservative
B) Non-conservative
C) Semi-conservative
D) All of these depending on organism
The figure shows-
A) Conservative DNA replication model
B) Semi-conservative DNA replication model
C) Non-conservative DNA replication model
D) Can’t say
The DNA replication model experimental proof was first shown in-
A) Human cells
B) E. coli
C) Plant cell
D) Vicia faba
Meselson and stahl performed experiment for proving DNA replication scheme in-
A) 1952
B) 1953
C) 1958
D) 1961
The bacteria were grown in medium containing-
A) 15NH4Cl – 15N is heavy isotope of nitrogen
B) 14NH4Cl – 14N is heavy isotope of nitrogen
C) 15NH4Cl – 15N is normal isotope of nitrogen
D) 14NH4Cl – 14N is normal isotope of nitrogen
The heavy DNA molecule containing heavy isotope of N is distinguished from normal DNA by-
A) UV rays
B) Ethidium bromide solution
C) Centrifugation is CsCl density gradient
D) PCR technique
In Meselson & Stahl experiment, first they-
A) grew bacteria on heavy isotope of N medium followed by normal one
B) grew bacteria on normal isotope of N medium followed by heavy one
C) grew bacteria on radioactive N followed by Keavy one
D) grew bacteria on heavy isotope of N followed by radioactive one
Identify the correct label
(i) (ii) (iii)
A) Light Heavy Hybrid
B) Heavy Hybrid Light
C) Light Hybrid Light
D) Heavy Hybrid Heavy
In Meselson & Stahl expt a bacteria after dividing in 20 minutes had a hybrid DNA. What will be the ratio of Hybrid to Light after 80 minutes?
A) 2 : 14
B) 14 : 2
C) 16 : 2
D) 2 : 16
Similar experiment on Vicia faba was conducted by ____ to detect distribution of newly synthesized DNA in chromosomes.
A) Taylor
B) Stahl C) Gamow
D) Nirenberg
Experiment on Vicia faba involved use of-
A) Radioactive uridine
B) Radioactive thymidine
C) Radioactive adenosine
D) Radioactive cytidine
The main enzyme of replication is-
A) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
B) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
D) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
Choose correct statement with regard with efficiency of DNA polymerase.
A) 4.6 × 106 bp of E. coli replicate within 46 minutes
B) The average rate of polymerization of DNA polymerase has to be approximately 2000 bp/minute
C) The polymerization accuracy is very high and very fast
D) All of these
What is function of deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate-
A) It act as substrate
B) Provide energy for polymerization
C) A and B both
D) It is product formed after polymerization
Assertion : The two strands of DNA cannot be separated in their length.
Reason : Separation required very high energy.
A) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
B) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion
C) Assertion is correct, Reason is false
D) Assertion & Reason are false
Polymerization by DNA polymerase is in-
A) 3′ → 5′ direction only
B) 5′ → 3′ direction only
C) A and B both
D) Random
The template of replication fork with polarity 5′ → 3′ is ____ while 3′ → 5′ is ____.
A) continuous, continuous
B) continuous, discontinuous
C) discontinuous, continuous
D) discontinuous, discontinuous
DNA ligase act on-
A) 5′ → 3′ template strand
B) 3′ → 5′ template strand
C) Both A and B
D) Ligate RNA with vector of 3′ → 5′ polarity
The replication is eukaryotes take place in-
A) M-phase
B) G1 phase
C) S-phase
D) G2 phase
Polyploidy resulted by-
A) A failure in cell division after DNA replication
B) A failure in DNA replication after cell division
C) A failure in cell division before DNA replication
D) A and C both
Correct label of A, B, C, D is-
(i) A = Template parental strand
(ii) B = Newly synthesized strand
(iii) D = Continuous strand
(iv) C = Discontinuous strand
A) i, ii only
B) iii, iv only
C) i, ii, iii, iv
D) None of these
Transcription is-
A) The process of copying genetic information from both strand of DNA into RNA
B) The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA
C) The process of copying genetic information from RNA into DNA
D) A and B both
In transcription, adenosine bind with
A) Thymine
B) Uracil
C) Cytosine
D) A and B both
Why both the strand of DNA are not copied during transcription-
A) If both strands act a template, they would code for RNA molecules with same sequence
B) RNA formed by transcription of both strand, when code for protein, the sequence of amino acid in protein are same
C) The two RNA molecules if produced simultaneously would be complementary to each other
D) All of these
Translation of RNA would be prevented if-
A) RNA is single strand
B) RNA is double-stranded
C) RNA is produced by both strand of DNA
D) B and C both
Transcription unit primarily consist of-
A) 1 region
B) 2 regions
C) 3 regions
D) None of these
Transcription primarily required-
A) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
B) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
D) RNA dependents DNA polymerase
Template strand of transcription unit is/are-
A) 5′ → 3′ strand of DNA
B) 3′ → 5′ strand of DNA
C) Site of catalysis of enzyme required for transcription
D) B and C both
What is coding strand of given template strand 3′ – AGCATGCA – 5′
A) 5′ – TACGTACGT – 3′
B) 5′ – UACGUACGU – 3′
C) 3′ – UACGUACGU – 5′
D) 3′ – TACGTACGT – 5′
Label A, B, C, D, E of given diagram.
| a | b | c | d | e | ||
| A | Promoter | Structural
Gene |
Template
strand |
Coding
strand |
Terminator | |
| B | Terminator | Structural
Gene |
Coding
strand |
Template
strand |
Promoter | |
| C | Promoter | Template
strand |
Coding
strand |
Structural
Gene |
Terminator | |
| D | None of these | |||||
Promoter is located-
(i) 3′ end
(ii) 5′ end
(iii) upstream of structural gene
(iv) downstream of structural gene
A) i, iii
B) ii, iii
C) i, iv
D) ii, iv
Terminator is located at
(i) 3′ end
(ii) 5′ end
(iii) upstream of structural gene
(iv) downstream of structural gene
A) i, iii
B) ii, iii
C) i, iv
D) ii, iv
A gene is defined as-
A) Functional unit of inheritance
B) Non-functional region of DNA that haven’t any information
C) A and B both
D) None of these
Cistron is-
A) Segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide
B) Segment of RNA coding for a polypeptide
C) Segment of DNA that are non-coding sequence
D) Segment of RNA have not any coding sequence
Choose the correct statement.
A) Monocistronic eukaryotic structural gene have interrupted coding sequence.
B) Polycistronic prokaryotic structural gene have interrupted coding sequence.
C) Monocistronic prokaryotic structural gene have interrupted coding sequence.
D) A and B both
Exons are-
A) Coding sequence
B) Non-coding sequence
C) Expressed sequence
D) A and C both
Intron-
A) appear is mature or processed RNA
B) do not appear in mature or processed RNA
C) appear is prokaryotes
D) B and C both
Which of following play role is protein synthesis of prokaryote?
A) r-RNA
B) t-RNA
C) m-RNA
D) All of these
The function of some RNA are given below choose the incorrect one.
A) mRNA provide template strand
B) mRNA provide non-template strand
C) tRNA bring amino acid
D) rRNA play structural & catalytic role
How many polymerase required is bacteria for transcription of all type of RNA?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Five
Choose incorrect step about transcription.
A) RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiate transcription.
B) Nucleotide triphosphate act as substrate and polymerization in a template.
C) A short stretch of RNA remains bound to enzyme.
D) Last step is termination.
Initiation factor and termination factor are-
A) Sigma and Rho factor respectively.
B) Rho and Sigma factor respectively.
C) Rho and Rho factor respectively.
D) Sigma and Sigma factor respectively.
Translation & transcription in eukaryote occur in
A) Cytoplasm & nucleus respectively
B) Nucleus & cytoplasm respectively
C) Cytosol
D) Nucleus
Which of following can be coupled in bacteria?
A) Replication & transcription
B) Transcription & translation
C) Replication & translation
D) None of these
Transcription of 18 s rRNA is done by ____in eukaryote.
A) RNA pol. I
B) RNA pol. II
C) RNA pol. III
D) All of these
Choose incorrect statement.
A) 5.8 s r-RNA and 5 s-RNA transcribes by same RNA polymerase in eukaryote.
B) hnRNA & mRNA transcribe by same RNA polymerase in eukaryote.
C) tRNA & snRNA transcribes by same RNA polymerase in eukaryote.
D) None of these
Splicing is required to-
A) remove intron in eukaryote
B) remove exon in eukaryote
C) remove exon in prokaryote
D) remove intron in prokaryote
Capping is-
A) Addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate at 5′ end
B) addition of adenylate residue at 3′ end
C) addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate at 3′ end
D) addition of adenylate residue at 5′ end
The fully processed hnRNA is-
A) tRNA
B) mRNA
C) rRNA
D) None of these
George Gamow argued-
A) There are only 5 bases and if they have code for 20 amino acid the code should constitute a combination of bases
B) There are only 4 bases and if they have code for 20 amino acid the code should constitute a combination of bases
C) Genetic code is triplet
D) B and C
Which of following have maximum codon in genetic code-
A) Leu
B) Met
C) Cal
D) Phe
Which of following is/are showing dual function-
A) UUU
B) AUG
C) UGA
D) GUA
Least number of codon is for-
A) Met
B) Phe
C) Gls
D) Gly
Sickle cell anaemia is classical example of-
A) point mutation
B) frameshift mutation
C) deletion mutation
D) addition mutation
In sickle cell anaemia, there are changes in gene for-
A) alpha globin chain
B) beta globin chain
C) gamma globin chain
D) delta globin chain
In sickle cell anaemia, resultant effect of mutation is change of amino acid residue-
A) Valine to alanine
B) Valine to glutamic acid
C) Alanine to valine
D) Glutamic acid to valine
The following is an example of- BIG RED CAP ⇒ BIG REM DCA P
A) Deletion mutation
B) Point mutation
C) Addition mutation
D) More than one option
RAM HAS CAP ⇒ RAM HAS BIG CAP
The given example shows-
A) Addition mutation
B) Deletion mutation
C) Substitution mutation
D) More than one option
tRNA has-
A) Codon loop
B) Anticodon loop
C) Both
D) Neither
The presence of adapter molecule to read the code on DNA and bind to amino acids was postulated by-
A) James Watson
B) Francis Crick
C) Friedrich Meisher
D) Both A and B
tRNA was also called-
A) s RNA (soluble RNA)
B) s RNA (single RNA)
C) s RNA (smart RNA)
D) s RNA (simple RNA)
The amino acid acceptor end of tRNA is-
A) 5′
B) 3′
C) Can be any of these
D) Free end
For initiation translation,
A) Only tRNA carries initiator amino acid to the site.
B) Specific rRNA carries initiator amino acid to the site.
C) Any rRNA carries initiator amino acid to the site.
D) Specific tRNA carries initiator amino acid to the site.
For stop codon-
A) There are specific tRNAs with amino acids.
B) There are specific tRNAs which do not bind to any amino acids.
C) There are no tRNA.
D) There are tRNAs which may or may not bind to amino acids.
The given figure shows-
A) Secondary structure of tRNA – Cloverleaf
B) Primary structure of tRNA – clover-leaf
C) Secondary structure of tRNA –inverted-L
D) Primary structure of tRNA – inverted-L
Translation refers to process of-
A) Making RNA from DNA
B) Making DNA from RNA
C) Polymerization of nucleotide to form a DNA
D) Polymerization of amino acid to form a polypeptide
The order and sequence of amino acid during translation are defined by-
A) The sequences of bases in r-RNA
B) The sequences of bases in t-RNA
C) The sequences of bases in m-RNA
D) All of these
Which of following bond is formed during translation?
A) Glycosidic bond
B) Phosphodiester bond
C) Peptide bond
D) All of these
First phase of translation does not involve-
A) Charging of RNA
B) Amino acids are activated in presence of ATP
C) Activated amino acid are linked to their cognate tRNA
D) None of these
Initiation or first phase of translation is-
A) Amino acylation of tRNA
B) Amino acylation of mRNA
C) Both A and B
D) Deamino acylation of mRNA
The cellular factory responsible for synthesizing protein is-
A) Ribosome
B) Lysosome
C) Peroxisome
D) None of these
In inactive state, protein factory of cell exist in
A) Two state
B) 4 state in prokaryote
C) 6 state in eukaryote
D) B and C both
Which of following is sign as beginning of translation?
A) When the large subunit of protein factory of cell encounters an mRNA.
B) When the small subunit of protein factory of cell encounters an mRNA.
C) When the small subunit of protein factory of cell encounter a tRNA.
D) When the large subunit of protein factory of cell encounters a tRNA.
The bond formation (peptide) between charged tRNA is accomplished due to-
A) Presence of ATP and catalyst
B) Two such charged tRNA are brought close by two site in large subunit of ribosome
C) Two charged tRNA are brought close by two site in small subunit of ribosome & presence of ATP along with catalyst
D) A and B both
The ribosome act as catalyst during bond formation (peptide) as in-
A) 28 s rRNA in bacteria
B) 23 s rRNA in bacteria
C) 23 s rRNA in eukaryote
D) 28 s tRNA in bacteria
Choose the correct statement-
A) A translational unit in mRNA is sequence of RNA that is flanked by start codon and stop codon and codes for polypeptide.
B) A translational unit is sequence of DNA that is flanked by start codon & codes for polypeptide.
C) A transcriptional unit in tRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by start codon and stop codon and codes for polypeptide.
D) A transcriptional unit in rRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by start codon (AUG) and stop codon and codes for polypeptide.
UTR is/are-
(i) Untranslated region of mRNA
(ii) It present at both 5′ end (start codon) and 3′ end (before stop codon)
(iii) They are required for efficient translation process
(iv) It present at both 3′ end (before start codon) and 3′ end (after stop codon)
A) i, ii, iii are correct
B) i, ii, iii and iv are correct
C) i, iii, iv are correct
D) i, iii are correct
Initiator tRNA binds with
A) AUG codon of mRNA
B) at initiation of protein synthesis
C) ATG codon of dsDNA
D) A and B both
Choose the correct about elongation of translation-
A) Complexes composed of an amino acid linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to appropriate codon in mRNA by forming complementary base pairs with the tRNA anticodon
B) The ribosome moves from codon to codon along the mRNA in (3′ → 5′).
C) Complexes composed of an amino acid linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to appropriate anticodon in mRNA by forming complementary base pair with tRNA codon.
D) A and B both
Termination of translation complex is done when-
A) Release factor binds with stop codon (AUG)
B) Release factor binds with UGA like codon
C) Complete translation of DNA including UTR occurs in eukaryotes
D) B and C both
Gene regulation is eukaryote exerted at-
A) Formation of primary transcript
B) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
C) A and B both
D) Regulation of splicing of tRNA
𝛽-glactosidase is used to catalyze the hydrosis of
A) Lactose into galactose and glucose
B) Lactose into fructose & glucose
C) Lactose into fructose & fructose
D) None of these
E.coli do not have lactose around them to utilized for energy source, they would-
A) No longer require the synthesis of enzyme 𝛼-galactosidase
B) Synthesized enzyme 𝛽-galactosidase
C) Die due to lack of carbon source and energy source
D) None of these
In prokaryote, predominant site for control of gene expression is-
A) Control of rate of transcriptional initiation
B) Control of rate of translational
C) Control of rate of transcriptional elongation
D) B and C both
Given below are statement. Choose the incorrect statement.
A) The development and differentiation of embryo into adult organisms are result of coordinated regulation of expression of several sets of genes.
B) Regulatory proteins act positively in activator.
C) In a transcriptional unit the activity of RNA polymerase at a given promoter is in turn regulated by interaction with accessory protein.
D) None of these
Operator-
A) Region adjacent to sequence by which repressor mRNA formed
B) Bind with repressor protein
C) Bind with inducer
D) A and B both
Each operon has-
A) Same operator and same repressor
B) Same operator but specific repressor
C) Specific operator but same repressor
D) Specific operator and specific repressor
Lac operon was studied first by-
A) Francois Jacob
B) Jacque Monod
C) Geneticist and Biochemist
D) None of these
Lac operon is/are-
A) Monocistronic structural gene is regulated by a common promoter & regulators genes.
B) Polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a common promoter & regulatory genes.
C) Consist of one regulatory gene, monocistronic structural gene having five gene along with promotor & operator.
D) A and C both
Regulatory gene of lac-operon is-
A) p-gene
B) i-gene
C) o-gene
D) z-gene
i in i-gene stand for-
A) inducer
B) inhibitor
C) A and B both
D) Inactive repressor
Match Column-I & Column-II.
Column-I(Gene) Column-II(Product)
(a) Z-gene (i) Repressor mRNA
(b) a-gene (ii) 𝛽-gal
(c) Y-gene (iii) Permease
(d) i-gene (iv) Transacetylase
a b c d
A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
D) ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
The monomeric product of lactose is chiefly hydrolyzed by-
A) i-gene
B) z-gene
C) a-gene
D) y-gene.
Lac in lac-operon is for
A) Monosaccharide
B) Disaccharide
C) Polysaccharide
D) Insect
In absence of preferred carbon source, if lactose is provided in growth medium of bacteria, the lactose is transported into cell through by action of product formed by-
A) i-gene
B) z-gene
C) a-gene
D) y-gene
Allolactose is-
A) Inducer of lac-operon
B) Inductive repressor
C) Form of lactose that bind with product of repressor mRNA and inhibit transcription of structural gene
D) All of these
Lac operon is-
A) Negative regulation operon
B) Positive regulation operon
C) A and B both
D) None of these
Inducer of lac-operon is-
A) Glucose
B) Galactose
C) Lactose
D) Fructose
A) The given diagram is in presence of lactose
B) The given diagram is in absence of lactose
C) The given diagram is of gene off
D) D and H is same process
HGP was launched in-
A) 1980
B) 1970
C) 1990
D) 2000
HGP was called a-
A) Minor project
B) Hexagonal project
C) Mega project
D) None of these
Human genome has approx. ______ bp.
A) 3 × 109
B) 3 × 106
C) 6 × 109
D) 6 × 106
If cost of sequencing required is US $ 3 per bp, then total cost of sequencing human genome as per 8-3 will be:
A) US $ 18 billion
B) US $ 9 billion
C) US $ 18 million
D) US $ 9 million
There were approx. ____ genes in human DNA, as per the goals of HGP
A) 20,000 – 25,000
B) 40,000 – 45,000
C) 10,000 – 15,000
D) 50,000 – 60,000
HGP was a ____ year project
A) 15
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14
HGP was coordination by-
A) US department of engineering & national institute of health
B) US department of engineering and national institute of biotechnology
C) US department of energy and national institute of biotechnology
D) US department energy and National Institute of Health
The ____ of U.K was a major partner of HGP (
A) Wellcome trust
B) Health trust
C) Social trust
D) Welcome trust
Project was completed in-
A) 2005
B) 2004
C) 2003
D) 2002
Additional contributes to HGP was-
A) Japan
B) China
C) Germany
D) All of these
Caenorhabditis elegans is a-
A) Fungi
B) Nematode
C) Bacteria
D) Virus
Caenorhabditis elegans is-
A) Free living , non-pathogenic
B) Parasitic , pathogenic
C) Free living , pathogenic
D) Parasitic , non-pathogenic
Methods / approaches of HGP include-
A) Excess sequence tags
B) Expressed sequence tags
C) Exercise sequence tags
D) Exerted sequence tags
Sequence annotations refer to-
A) Identifying all genes expressed as RNA and then sequencing then
B) Sequencing the whole set of genome and then assigning different regions with functions
C) Identifying and sequencing the genome simultaneously
D) More than one option is correct
For sequencing, the DNA is-
A) Partially extracted from cell
B) Totally isolated from cell
C) Not needed to isolated from cell
D) None of these
The DNA for sequencing is converted to fragments of small size. The fragments are made-
A) On a pre – decided basis
B) On a pre – defined basis
C) Randomly
D) Depending upon organism
The step in DNA sequencing after fragmentation of DNA is-
A) Cloning in host using vectors
B) Cloning in vectors using host
C) Amplification of DNA fragments
D) More than one option
Commonly used hosts for DNA cloning include-
A) Bacteria
B) BAC
C) YAC
D) Both A and C
BAC stands for-
A) Bacterial artificial colour
B) Binominal artificial characterization
C) Bacterial artificial chromosome
D) Bacterial articular chromosome
Fragments were sequenced using automated DNA sequence that worked on principle of a method developed by-
A) Erwin Chargaff
B) Marshal Nirenberg
C) Frederick Sanger
D) George Gamow
Method for determination of amines acid sequence in protein was developed by-
A) Erwin Chargaff
B) Marshal Nirenberg
C) Frederick Sanger
D) George Gamow
The last of the 24 human chromosomes to be sequenced was-
A) Chromosome 1
B) Chromosome X
C) Chromosome 22
D) Chromosome Y
According to HGP, human genome contains-
A) ~ 3000 million bp
B) ~ 6000 million bp
C) ~ 9000 million bp
D) ~ 1000 million bp
Dystrophin was found to be-
A) Largest known human gene with 2.4 million bases
B) Smallest known human gene with 2.4 million bases
C) Largest known human gene with 4.8 million bases
D) Smallest known human gene with 4.8 million bases
Which chromosome was found to have most genes-
A) Chr 22
B) Chr 1
C) Chr 5
D) Chr Y
Which chromosome was found to have fewest genes-
A) Chr X
B) Chr Y
C) Chr 1
D) Chr 5
The DNA sequence in which small stretch of DNA is repeated many times is called-
A) SNP
B) Repetitive DNA
C) Polymorphic DNA
D) More than one option
Satellite DNA classified into different categories like micro – satellite , mini -satellite , etc based on-
A) Length of segment
B) Number of repetitive
C) Base composition
D) All of these
Polymorphism arises due to-
A) Mutation – inheritable
B) Stability of genetic material
C) Mutation – non-heritable
D) All of these
DNA polymorphism is observed more in-
A) non-coding DNA sequence as its mutation affects reproduction
B) coding DNA sequence as its mutation affects reproduction
C) non-coding DNA sequence as it mutation may not affect reproduction ability
D) Coding DNA sequence as its mutation may not affect reproduction ability
Technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by-
A) James Watson
B) Jansley
C) Alec Jeffreys
D) Maheshwari
VNTR stands for
A) Various number of Tendon Repeats
B) Variable Number of Tendon Repeats
C) Various Number of Tandem Repeats
D) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats
VNTR belongs to-
A) Micro-satellite
B) Macro-satellite
C) Mini-satellite
D) All of these
In the given figure if ‘C’ is the DNA collected from crime site and ‘A’ & ‘B’ are samples from suspects, than who is the criminal?
A) B
B) A
C) Both A and B
D) None of these
The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA was first shown in a :
(a) Fungus (b) Bacterium (c) Virus (d) Plant
Select the correct match
(a) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae
(b) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV
(c) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon
(d) Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as :
(a) Polysome (b) Polyhedral bodies (c) Nucleosome (d) Plastidome
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
(a) AGGUAUCGCAU (b) UGGTUTCGCAT (c) UCCAUAGCGUA (d) ACCUAUGCGAU
All of the following are part of an operon except :
(a) An operator (b) Structural genes (c) A promoter (d) An enhancer
The given figure shows the structure of nucleosome with their parts labelled as A, B & C. Identify A, B and C.
(a) A – DNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer (b) A – H1 histone; B – DNA; C – Histone octamer
(c) A – Histone octamer; B – RNA; C – H1 histone (d) A – RNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer
Match the codons given in column I with their respective amino acids given in column II and choose the correct answer.
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – II
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – II (d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – III
The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of :
(a) Hershey and Chase (b) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(c) Hargobind Khorana (d) Griffith
DNA fragments are :
(a) Negatively charged
(b) Neutral
(c) Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
(d) Positively charged
Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?
(a) t-RNA (b) m-RNA (c) mi-RNA (d) r-RNA
The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates
(a) DNA replication is occurring. (b) the DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre.
(c) the DNA double helix is exposed. (d) transcription is occurring.
If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?
(a) 11 (b) 33 (c) 333 (d) 1
During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate
(a) the lagging strand towards replication fork. (b) the leading strand away from replication fork.
(c) the lagging strand away from the replication fork. (d) the leading strand towards replication fork.
Spliceosomes are not found in cells of :
(a) Fungi (b) Animals (c) Bacteria (d) Plants
Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
(a) Glucose (b) Galactose (c) Lactose (d) Lactose and galactose
Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
(a) Polymerase chain reaction (b) Zinc finger analysis
(c) Restriction enzymes (d) DNA-DNA hybridisation
Which one of the following is the starter codon?
(a) AUG (b) UGA (c) UAA (d) UAG
A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as :
(a) Polysome (b) Polymer (c) Polypeptide (d) Okazaki fragment
There are three genes a, b, c. Percentage of crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c is 28% and a and c is 8%. What is the sequence of genes on chromosome?
(a) b, a, c (b) a, b, c (c) a, c, b (d) None of these
Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA?
(a) 5′ phosphoryl and 3′ hydroxyl ends (b) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
(c) Chargaff’s rule (d) Watson and Crick
In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are:
(a) G-17%, A-16.5%, T-32.5% (b) G-17%, A-33%, T-33%
(c) G-8.5%, A-50%, T-24.5% (d) G-34%, A-24.5%, T-24.5%
The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called __________.
(a) duplication (b) translocation (c) crossing over (d) inversion
Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is :
(a) negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription.
(b) negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription.
(c) feedback inhibition because excess of b-galactosidase can switch off trascription.
(d) positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose.
Satellite DNA is important because it :
(a) shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable from parents to children.
(b) does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population.
(c) codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication.
(d) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.
Select the correct option.
(a) 5´—3´ 3´—5´ (b) 3´—5´ 5´—3´ (c) 5´—3´ 5´—3´ (d) 3´—5´ 3´—5’
Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA?
(a) 5′ – GAATTC – 3′ (b) 5′ – CCAATG – 3′
3′ – CTTAAG – 5′ 3′ – GAATCC – 5′
(c) 5′ – CATTAG – 3′ (d) 5′ – GATACC – 3′
3′ – GATAAC – 5′
Transformation was discovered by :
(a) Meselson and Stahl (b) Hershey and Chase (c) Griffith (d) Watson and Crick
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Transcription – Writing information from DNA to tRNA.
(b) Translation – Using information in mRNA to make protein.
(c) Repressor protein – Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis.
(d) Operon – Structural genes, operator and promoter.
Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are:
(a) T-DNA (b) BAC and YAC (c) Expression vectors (d) T/A cloning vectors
Purines found both in DNA and RNA are :-
(1) Adenine and thymine (2) Adenine and guanine
(3) Guanine and cytosine (4) Cytosine and thymine
Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of following mRNA ?
5’AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3′
(1) Insertion of G at 5th position
(2) Deletion of G from 5th position
(3) Insertion of A and G and 4th and 5th positions respectively
(4) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions
Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by Recombinant DNA technology?
(1) Genetic code is not ambiguous (2) Genetic code is redundant
(3) Genetic code is nearly universal (4) Genetic code is specific
Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :-
(1) Genes expressed as RNA (2) Polypeptide expression
(3) DNA polymorphism (4) Novel DNA sequences
Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products :-
(a) i gene (i) b-galactosidase (b) z gene (ii) Permease
(c) a gene (iii) Repressor (d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
Select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA?
3’ATGCATGCATGCATG5′ TEMPLATE STRAND
5′ TACGTACGTACGTAC3′ CODING STRAND
(1) 3’AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG5′ (2) 5’UACGUACGUACGUAC 3′
(3) 3′ UACGUACGUACGUAC 5′ (4) 5′ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3′
Match the following RNA polymerase with their transcribed products :
(a) RNA polymerase I (i) tRNA
(b) RNA polymerase II (ii) rRNA
(c) RNA polymerase III (iii) hnRNA
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
From the following, identify the correct combination of salient features of Genetic Code :-
(1) Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping (2) Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless
(3) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate (4) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non-ambiguous
Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA is the sole genetic material in bacteriophage ?
(1) Beadle and Tautum (2)Messelson and Stahl (3)Hershey and Chase (4) Jacob and Monod
In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase I transcribes
(1) mRNA with additional processing, capping and tailing (2) tRNA, 5 S rRNA and snRNAs
(3) rRNAs.28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S (4) Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA
What initiation and termination factors are involved in transcription in Eukaryotes?
(1) s and r, respectively (2) a and b, respectively
(3) b and g, respectively (4) a and s, respectively
The term ‘Nuclein’ for the genetic material was used by :
(1) Franklin (2) Meischer (3) Chargaff (4) Mendel
In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous base is linked to the –OH of:
(1) 2’C pentose sugar (2) 3’C pentose sugar (3) 5’C pentose sugar (4) 1’C pentose sugar
E.coli has only 4.6 × 106base pairs and completes the process of replication within 18 minutes; then the average rate of polymerisation is approximately-
(1) 2000 base pairs/second (2) 3000 base pairs/second
(3) 4000 base pairs/second (4) 1000 base pairs/second
Which is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome as well as DNA finger printing?
(1) Polymorphism in DNA sequence (2) Single nucleotide polymorphism
(3) Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence (4) Polymorphism in RNA sequence
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription
1) RNA polymerase 2) DNA ligase 3) DNA helicase 4) DNA polymerase
The first phase of translation is:
1) Recognition of an anti–codon 2) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
3) Recognition of DNA molecule 4) Aminoacylation of tRNA
If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6×109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately
1) 2.7 meters 2) 2.0 meters 3) 2.5 meters 4) 2.2 meters
Complete the flow chart on central dogma
1) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction
2) (a)- Replication;(b)- Transcription;(c)- Translation;(d)-Protein
3) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Transcription (c)-Transduction;(D) –Protein
4) a) Replication, b) Transcription, c) Transduction; D)-protein
Identify the correct statement
1) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
2) The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA
3) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes
4) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3’ end of hnRNA
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
1) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
2) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
3) Transcribes only snRNAs
4) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “capability” to catalyse initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes ?
1.DNA dependent RNA polymerase
2. DNA Ligase
3.DNase
4. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is
1) Okazaki sequences
2) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
3) Poly(A) tail sequences
4) Degenerate primer sequence
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?
1) tRNA
2) rRNA
3) siRNA
4) mRNA
Statement-I: The codon ‘AUG codes for methionine and phenylalanine.
Statement-II: AAA’ and ‘AAG” both codons code for the amino acid lysine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?
1) The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
2) Histones are rich in amino acids – Lysine and Arginine.
3) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
4) Histone are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as:
1) Repetitive DNA
2) Single nucleotides
3) Polymorphic DNA
4) Satellite DNA
In an E.coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product cannot bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?
1) Only z gene will get transcribed
2) z, y, a genes will be transcribed
3) z, y, a genes will not be translated
4) RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region
If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?
1) bp
2) bp
3) bp
4) bp
Ten E.coli cells with – dsDNA are incubated in medium containing nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from ?
1) 20 cells
2) 40 cells
3) 60 cells
4) 80 cells