30 HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE QUESTIONS
HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE QUESTIONS
The ‘good humor’ hypothesis of health was disproved by the
- discovery of blood circulation
- 2. discovery of compound microscope
- demonstration of normal body temperature in persons with blackbile
- both (1) and (3)
The term health can be defined as
- the state of body and mind in a balanced condition
- the reflection of a smiling face
- a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being
- the symbol of economic prosperity
After diagnosis by a psychiatrist, an apparently healthy person was said to be unhealthy because the patient was
- inefficient at his work 2. not prosperous economically
- not interested in sports 4. showing behavioural and social Maladjustment
Choose the incorrect statement about health.
- Health can simply be defined as absence of disease.
- Healthy people are more efficient at work.
- Health increases productivity.
- Health reduces infant and maternal mortality.
Choose the correct statements aboutdiseases.
(I) Disease adversely affects the functioning of one or more organs.
(II) A disease is characterized by the appearance of various signs and symptoms.
(III) AIDS is a fatal non-infectious disease.
(IV) Cancer is an infectious disease.
- (I) and (II) 2. (II) and (III)
- (III) and (IV) 4. (I) and (IV)
Diseases which are easily transmitted from one person to another are called
- non-infectious diseases 2. genetic diseases
- infectious diseases 4. none of these
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A)Health (1) AIDS
(B)Genetic disorders (2) Physical, mental and social well-being
(C) Infectious disease (3) Cancer
(D) Noninfectious disease (4) Inherited from parents from birth
Select the correct option.
A B C D
- 2 4 3 1
- 2 4 1 3
- 3 2 4 1
- 1 3 2 4
Among the following, identify the infectious diseases.
(I) Cancer (II) Influenza (III) Allergy (IV) Smallpox
- (I) and (II)
- 2. (II) and (III)
- (III) and (IV)
- 4. (II) and (IV)
Assertion: Diseases are characterized by the appearance of various signs and symptoms.
Reason: Disease always adversely affects only one organ or system.
- Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
- Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
- Assertion is true but reason is false. 4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: AIDS is an infectious disease.
Reason: AIDS can be easily transmitted from one person to another.
- Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
- Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
- Assertion is true but reason is false. 4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Diseases can be caused by the infection of
- bacteria 2. Viruses 3. helminths 4. all of these
The disease-causing organisms in plants and animals are called
- vectors 2. pathogens 3. Insects 4. worms
The pathogens can affect our body by
- interfering with normal vital activities 2. resulting in morphological damage
- resulting in functional damage 4. all of these
Most of the parasites are considered as
- vectors 2. pathogens 3. worms 4. none of these
Production of digestive juices in the stomach in excessive amount results in
- ulcers 2. cirrhosis 3. jaundice 4. diarrhoea
The inflammation of pancreas is
- pancreatitis 2. jaundice 3. ulcer 4. none of these
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A)Lactose intolerance (1) Excessive passage of loose & watery feces
(B) Celiac disease (2) Disability to synthesize lactase enzyme
(C) Diarrhoea (3) Inflammation of pancreas
(D) Pancreatitis (4) Inflammation of small intestine
Codes-
A B C D
- 4 2 3 1
- 2 4 1 3
- 1 3 4 2
- 3 1 2 4
The pathogens that enter the gut can
- survive in the stomach at low pH 2. resist the various digestive enzymes
- survive only at high temperature 4. both (1) and (2)
In human beings, typhoid fever is caused by the infection of
- Salmonella typhi 2. E. coli
- Plasmodium vivax ` 4. Entamoeba histolytica
Salmonella typhi infects
- large intestine 2. stomach
- small intestine 4. liver
The pathogen of typhoid fever enters in the body through
- contaminated food 2. contaminated water
- inhaling of air droplets released by diseased person
- both (1) and (2)
The symptoms of typhoid include
- high fever 2. stomach pain
- loss of appetite 4. all of these
The typhoid can be diagnosed by
- ELISA 2. PCR 3. Widal test 4. ESR
Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid.
- Plasmodium vivax/UTI test 2. Streptococcus pneumoniae/Widal test
- Salmonella typhi/Anthrone test 4. Salmonella typhi/Widal test
The causative agents of pneumonia in humans is/are
- Streptococcus pneumonia 2. Haemophilus influenzae
- Bacillus anthracis 4. Both (1) and (2)
In pneumonia, which part of respiratory system is affected?
- Alveoli 2. Nose 3. Respiratory passage 4. All of these
The group of symptoms that is indicative of pneumonia
constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots.
difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache.
nasal congestion and discharge, cough, constipation, headache.
high fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite, constipation.
Among the following which one is not a bacterial disease?
- Dysentery 2. Plague 3. Diphtheria 4. Common cold
Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?
- Tetanus and mumps 2. Herpes and influenza
- Cholera and tetanus 4. Typhoid and small pox
Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
- In severe cases of typhoid, intestinal perforation and death may occur.
- Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.
- Streptococcus pneumoniae infects respiratory passage.
- Dysentery and plague are bacterial diseases.
Rhino viruses cause
- pneumonia 2. plague 3. common cold 4. typhoid
Rhino viruses infect
- nose 2. respiratory passage 3. lungs 4. both (1) and (2)
Which one is not a symptom of common cold in humans?
- Nasal congestion 2. Sore throat 3. Headache 4. Grey to bluish colour of lips
Match Column-I (diseases) with Column- II (causative agent) and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A)Typhoid (1) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(B) Pneumonia (2) Rhino viruses
(C) Common cold (3) Salmonella typhi
(4) Haemophilus influenzae
Codes-
A B C
- 3 1,4 2
- 3 1,2 4
- 2 3 1,4
- 1 4 2,3
The malignant malaria is caused by
- Plasmodium vivax 2. Plasmodium falciparum
- Plasmodium malaria 4. None of these
Plasmodium enters the human body as
- Gametocyte 2. Haemozoin 3. Sporozoite 4. None of these
Haemozoin is a toxin released from
- Streptococcus infected cells 2. Plasmodium infected cells
- Homophilus infected cells 4. None of these
The infectious stage of plasmodium, i.e., sporozoites are formed
- RBCs of mosquito 2. liver of the infected man
- gut of mosquito 4. salivary glands of mosquito
How many hosts are required by the malarial parasite to complete its life cycle?
- One 2. Two 3. Three 4. One or two according to environmental conditions
The person suffering from sickle cell anaemia is
- less prone to typhoid 2. less prone to malaria
- more prone to typhoid 4. more prone to malaria
Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite which infects
- stomach 2. small intestine 3. large intestine 4. liver
The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon
- mucosa and submucosa of colon only 2. food in intestine
- blood only 4. erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of colon
Refer to the given figure showing stages in the life cycle of use plasmodium. In the figure, which type of reproduction is occurring at stages A and B respectively. Also, identify C and D in the figure.
A B C D
1.Asexual Sexual Gametocytes Sporozoites
2.Sexual Asexual Gametocytes Sporozoites
3.Asexual Sexual Sporozoites Gametocytes
4.Asexual Sexual Gametocytes Ookinetes
Match Column-I (Diseases) with Column-II (causative agents) and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A)Typhoid (1) Entamoeba histolytica
(B)Malaria (2) Salmonella typhi
(C) Amoebiasis (3) Rhino viruses
(D) Common cold (4) Plasmodium vivax
Codes-
A B C D
- 2 4 1 3
- B) 4 3 2 1
- 1 2 4 3
- D) 3 1 2 4
Choose the correct statements about amoebiasis.
(I) It is caused by the infection of Entamoeba histolytica.
(II) Its symptoms include loose motion, abdominal pain and cramps, stools with excess mucous and blood clots.
(III) Houseflies act as mechanical carriers for the parasite.
(IV) The main sources of its infection are drinking water and food contaminated by the fecal matter.
- (I) and (II) 2. (II) and (III) 3. (I), (III) and (IV) 4. All of these
Ascaris, which causes ascariasis is an/a
- intestinal parasite 2. stomach parasite
- liver parasite 4. none of these
The symptoms of ascariasis include
- internal bleeding 2. anemia
- muscular pain 4. all of these
In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
- Elephantiasis 2. Ascariasis
- Ringworm disease 4. Amoebiasis
Refer to the given figure.
Which disease is shown in the figure?
- Amoebiasis 2. Filariasis 3. Elephantiasis 4. Both (2) and (3)
Among the following which does not cause ringworm disease in humans?
- Microsporum 2. Macrosporum 3. Epidermophyton 4. Trichophyton
Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body is symptom of which infectious disease?
- Filaria 2. Ascarisis 3. Ringworm 4. None of these
Match the pathogens given in Column-I to the body organs to which they affect in Column-II. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(1.Ascaris (1) Lymphatic vessels of lower limbs
(2.Wuchereria (2) Intestine
(3.Trichopyton (3) Skin, scalp and nails
(4.Streptococcus pneumonia (4) Lungs
Codes-
A B C D
- 2 1 3 4
- 1 2 4 3
- 3 2 1 4
- 4 3 2 1
Ringworms are generally acquired from
- soil
- 2. infected towels
- infected combs
- 4. all of these
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(1.Entamoeba histolytica (1) Sporozoa
(2.Plasmodium vivax (2) Rhizopoda
(3.Ascaris lumbricoides (3) Deuteromycetes
(4.Trichophyton rubrum (4) Nematoda
Codes-
A B C D
- 2 1 4 3
- 1 2 3 4
- 4 3 2 1
- 3 4 1 2
Trichophyton feeds on
- goblins of blood 2. keratin of skin
- cellulose of leaves 4. none of these
Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
- Wuchereria bancrofti causes chronic inflammation of the lymphatic vessels.
- The pathogens of filaria are transmitted to a healthy person through houseflies.
- Trichophyton is responsible for ringworm.
- Common cold is a viral disease.
Read the following statements carefully and choose the option that correctly identifies the true statements.
(I) Many infectious diseases can be prevented and controlled by maintaining personal and public hygiene
(II) Proper disposal of waste and excreta is particularly essential for the airborne diseases.
(III) Malaria can be prevented by eliminating its vector and their breeding places
(IV) Chikungunya is a vector-borne disease.
- (I), (II) and (III) 2. (II), (III) and (IV)
- (IV), (II) and (I) 4.(I), (III) and (IV)
The most important measure to control malaria and filariasis is to control or eliminate the
- vectors 2. breeding places of vectors
- causal organism 4. both (1) and (2)
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below
Column-I Column-II
(A)Food-borne disease (1) Pneumonia
(B) Air-borne disease (2) Amoebic dysentery
(C) Vector-borne disease (3) Malaria
(4) Typhoid
Codes-
A B C
- 2,4 1 3
- 1,4 2 3
- 3 2,4 1
- 2 3 4,1
Which fish is introduced in ponds that feed on mosquito larva?
- Rohu 2. Katla 3. Gambusia 4. None of these
The vector that transmits the disease chikungunya is
- Housefly 2. Cockroach 3. Aedes mosquito 4. Female Anopheles
Dengue is transmitted through
- female Anopheles 2. housefly 3. Gambusia 4. Aedes mosquito
A deadly disease that has been eradicated from India is
- typhoid 2. smallpox 3. dengue 4. cancer
Among the following diseases, for which one is vaccine available?
- Polio 2. Pneumonia 3. Tetanus 4. All of these
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A)Amoebic dysentery (1) Female Anopheles
(B) Dengue (2) Housefly
(C) Malaria (3) Aedes mosquito
Codes-
A B C
- 3 2 1
- 2 3 1
- 1 2 3
- 2 1 3
Assertion: Most of the parasites are pathogens.
Reason: Disease causing organisms are called pathogens hosts as parasite.
- Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
- Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
- Assertion is true but reason is false. 4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Pneumonia is caused by the infection of Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Reason: Streptococcus pneumonia bacteria infect respiratory passage.
- Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
- Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
- Assertion is true but reason is false. 4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: The malarial parasite requires two hosts to complete its lifecycle.
Reason: These two hosts are human and mosquito.
- Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
- Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
- Assertion is true but reason is false. 4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Wuchereria bancrofti afects the blood vessels of the lower limbs.
Reason: This pathogen is transmitted to a healthy person through the bite of male mosquito vectors.
- Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
- Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
- Assertion is true but reason is false. 4. Both assertion and reason are false.
The ability of the host to fight against disease causing organism is known as
- pathogenicity 2. immunity 3. immunisation 4. none of these
Innate immunity
- is non-specific type of defence. 2. is present at the time of birth.
- consists of four types of barriers. 4. all of these
Which type of immunity is present from the birth?
- Acquired 2. Innate 3. Specific 4. None of these
Identify the physical barrier of immunity from the following.
- Skin on our body 2. Acid in the stomach
- PMNL-neutrophils 4. Both (1) and (2)
Saliva in the mouth is an example of
- physical barrier of immunity. 2. physiological barrier of immunity.
- cellular barrier of immunity. 4. cytokine barrier of immunity.
Humans have acquired immune system that produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still innate immune system is present at the time of birth because it
1.provides passive immunity 2.is very specific and uses different macrophages
3.produces memory cells for mounting fast secondary response
4.has natural killer cells which can phagocytose and destroy microbes
A substance produced by a virus infected cell that can protect other cells from further infection is
1.colostrum 2.serotonin 3.interferon 4.histamine
Interferons, produced by virus-infected cells are
1.enzymes 2.proteins 3.lipids 4.none of these
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A)Physical barrier (1) Acid in the stomach
(B) Physiological barrier (2) Monocytes
(C)Cellular barrier (3) Interferon
(D) Cytokine barrier (4) Mucus coating of the epithelium lining of urogenital tract
Codes-
A B C D
- 4 1 2 3
- 1 3 4 2
- 2 4 3 1
- 3 2 1 4
The pathogen specific immunity is
1.innate immunity 2.acquired immunity 3.physical strength 4.none of these
Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a/an
1.secondary response 2.highly intensified response
3.anamnestic response 4.all of these
Antibodies are produced by
1.T-lymphocytes 2.B-lymphocytes 3.monocytes 4.both (1) and (2)
An antibody is represented as
1.H3L3 2.H1L1 3.H2L2 4.None of these
Refer to the given figure showing structure of an antibody. In the figure some parts are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Identify the part which binds with antigen.
1.Q 2.P 3.R 4.S
Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft?
1.Auto-immune response 2.Humoral immune response
3.Inflammatory immune response 4.Cell-mediated immune response
Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejections?
1.Cell-mediated immune response 2.Humoral immune response
3.Physiological immune response 4.Auto immune response
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A)Innate immunity (1) Antibodies
(B) Acquired immunity (2) Non-specific immune response
(C)Humoral immune response (3) T-lymphocytes
(D) Cellmediated immunity (4) Pathogen specific immune response
Codes-
A B C D
- 4 2 3 1
- 2 4 1 3
- 2 4 3 1
- 1 3 4 2
Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
1.Primary immune response is of low intensity.
2.The primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of B-lymphocytes and Tlymphocytes.
3.B-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help T-cells to produce them.
4.Antibodies are found in blood, therefore it is called humoral immune response.
When a host is exposed to antigens, antibodies are produced in the host body. This type of immunity is called
1.active immunity 2.passive immunity 3.innate immunity 4.none of these
When readymade antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents, it is called
1.cell-mediated immunity 2.passive immunity 3.active immunity 4.innate immunity
Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the newborn infants because it contains
1.natural killer cells 2.monocytes 3.macrophages 4.immunoglobulin A
Which type of antibodies are found in colostrum?
1.O = IgG type 2.O = IgD type 3.O = IgA type 4.O = IgE type
Consider the following statements and choose the correct statements.
(I) Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response.
(II) In passive immunity, ready-made antibodies are directly given
(III) Colostrum contains IgE antibodies.
(IV) The foetus also receives some antibodies from its mother.
1.(I), (II) and (III) 2.(I), (II) and (IV)
3.(I), (III) and (IV) 4.All of these
The principle of immunisation is based on which property of immune system?
1.Discriminate between self and nonself 2.Memory
3.Production of antibodies 4.All of these
Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine.
Column-I Column-II
(A)Tuberculosis (1) Harmless virus
(B)Whooping cough (2) Inactivated toxin
(C) Diphtheria (3) Killed bacteria
(D) Polio (4) Harmless bacteria
Codes-
A B C D
- 3 2 4 1
- 4 3 2 1
- 1 2 4 3
- 2 1 3 4
In case of snakebites, the injection which is given to the patients, contains
1.antigens 2.antigen – antibody complexes 3.antibodies 4.enzymes
In vaccination, what is introduced in the body?
1.Antigenic proteins of pathogen 2.Inactivated pathogen
3.Weakened pathogen 4.All of these
Vaccine of hepatitis B is produced from
1.Yeast 2.Rhizobium 3.Agrobacterium 4.Azadirachta
Choose the incorrect statement about vaccination.
1.In passive immunization, preformed antibodies are injected in the body.
2.Vaccines can be produced using recombinant DNA technology.
3.Vaccines generate memory B-cells and T-cells.
4.Vaccines given in case of snakebite contains preformed antigens.
The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens in the environment is called
1.immunisation 2.allergy 3.vaccination 4.none of these
The substances which produce allergy are called
1.antigens 2.pathogens 3.allergens 4.antibodies
The antibodies produced against allergens are of
1.O = IgA type 2.O = IgE type 3.O = IgM type 4.O = IgG type
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A)Colostrum (1) IgE
(B) Allergy (2) IgA
(C) Graft rejection (3) Passive immunisation
(D) Preformed antibodies (4) Cell-medicated immunity
Codes-
A B C D
- 3 2 4 1
- 4 3 2 1
- 1 2 4 3
- 2 1 4 3
Symptoms of allergic reactions include
1.sneezing 2.watery eyes 3.running nose 4.all of these
The chemical which is released during allergic reaction?
1.Histamine 2.Serotonin 3.Steroid 4.Both (1) and (2)
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
1.Psoriasis 2.Rheumatoid arthritis
3.Alzheimer’s disease 4.Vitiligo
Which of the following diseases is an autoimmune disorder?
1.Gout 2.Myasthenia gravis 3.Arthritis 4.Osteoporosis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a/an
1.infectious disease 2.genetic disorder 3.autoimmune disease 4.non-infectious disease
Choose the correct reason(s) for rheumatoid arthritis.
(I) Body attacks self-cells
(II) The ability of immune system to differentiate between self and nonself increases.
(III) The production of antibodies increases.
(IV) Immune system fails to discriminate between self and non-self cells.
1.(I) and (IV) 2.(II) and (III) 3.(II) and (IV) 4.(I) and (III)
Our immune system is unique because it can
1.recognise foreign antigens 2.respond to antigens
3.remember antigens 4.all of these
The immune system plays an important role in
1.allergic reactions 2.autoimmune diseases 3.organ transplantation 4.all of these
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below
Column-I Column-II
(A) Allergy (1) Inability to discriminate self cells from nonself- cells
(B) Autoimmunity (2) Introduction of killed/ Weakened pathogen
(C) Active immunisation (3) Immune response against allergens
(D) Passive immunisation (4) Introduction of antibodies
Codes-
A B C D
- 3 1 2 4
- 4 3 2 1
- 3 1 4 2
- 2 4 3 1
Identify the primary lymphoid organ(s).
1.Bone marrow 2.Thymus 3.Spleen 4.Both (1.and (b)
In primary lymphoid organs,
1.lymphocytes become mature 2.lymphocyte interact with antigens
3.lymphocytes become effecter cells 4.both (1) and (2)
Among the following which one is not a lymphoid tissue?
1.Tonsils 2.Spleen 3.Thymus 4.ancreas
The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of lymph nodes. In the figure some parts are labeled as A, B, C and D. Identify the part that serves to trap the antigens.
1.B 2.A 3.C 4.D
The lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced
1.Spleen 2.Thymus 3.Bone narrow 4.Payer’s patches
The lymphoid organ that keeps reducing in size with age is
1.tonsils 2.bone marrow 3.thymus 4.spleen
Which one is known as the reservoir of erythrocytes?
1.Spleen 2.Thymus 3.Lymph nodes 4.None of these
The organ(s) that provide(s) microenvironments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes is/are
1.Bone marrow 2.Thymus 3.Spleen 4.Both (1) and (2)
The lymphoid tissue located within the lining of digestive tract is called
1.lymphatic vessels 2.lymph nodes 3.MALT 4.none of these
MALT constitutes about ______ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
1.20% 2.70% 3.10% 4.50%
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below
Column-I Column-II
(A) Bone marrow (1) Maturation of T-Lymphocytes
(B)Thymus (2) Production of blood cells
(C) Spleen (3) Serve to trap antigens
(D) Lymph Nodes (4) Reservoir of erythrocytes
Codes-
A B C D
- 1 2 3 4
- 2 1 4 3
- 4 3 2 1
- 3 4 1 2
Assertion: The immune response in which antibodies are formed is called humoral immune response.
Reason: Antibodies are found in blood.
1.Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2.Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.Assertion is true but reason is false. 4.Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: In passive immunization, preformed antibodies are given to the patients.
Reason: Polio vaccine also contains preformed antibodies.
1.Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2.Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.Assertion is true but reason is false. 4.Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Bone marrow is a secondary lymphoid organ.
Reason: In secondary lymphoid organs maturation of lymphocytes occur.
1.Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2.Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.Assertion is true but reason is false.
4.Both assertion and reason are false.
The word AIDS stands for ‘Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome’, here syndrome means
1.group of diseases 2.group of symptoms 3.group of antigens 4.none of these
HIV is a member of a group of viruses called
1.rota virus 2.rhino virus 3.retro virus 4.none of these
Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?
1.HIV is an unenveloped retrovirus.
2.HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response.
3.HIV is an enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
4.HIV is an enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two
HIV is not transmitted by
1.transfusion of contaminated blood 2.sharing of infected needles
3.sexual contact with infected persons 4.shaking hands with infected person
HIV/AIDS spreads through
1.droplets resulting from cough 2.body fluids 3.mere touch 4.All of these
HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying
1.leucocytes 2.helper T-cells 3.thrombocytes 4.B-lymphocytes
AIDS is diagnosed through which technique?
1.ELISA 2.PCR 3.PAGE 4.Electrophoresis
Refer to the given figure showing replication of retrovirus. How is it different from the replication of other viruses?
1.Viral DNA is produced from viral RNA by reverse transcriptase.
2.Viral RNA produces dsRNA by RNA polymerase.
3.Viral DNA is produced from viral RNA by DNA polymerase.
4.Viral DNA is produced from host DNA by DNA polymerase.
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below
Column-I Column-II
(A)AIDS (1) Retrovirus
(B) HIV (2) Enzyme
(C) Reverse transcriptase (3) Diagnostic technique
(D) ELISA (4) Syndrome
Codes-
A B C D
- 4 1 2 3
- 1 2 4 3
- 3 4 1 2
- 2 3 4 1
Choose the incorrect statement about AIDS.
1.AIDS is caused by HIV.
2.It can be diagnosed using ELISA technique.
3.HIV destroys B-lymphocytes.
4.HIV infected people need help and sympathy instead of being shunned by the society.
Assertion: AIDS is caused by Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV).
Reason: It is a member of group ‘retroviruses’.
1.Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2.Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.Assertion is true but reason is false. 4.Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Transmission of HIV infection generally occurs by sexual contact with infected person.
Reason: HIV is not transmitted by the transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products.
1.Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2.Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.Assertion is true but reason is false. 4.Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: AIDS leads to a progressive decrease in number of helper Tlymphocytes in the infected person.
Reason: HIV virus replicates and produces progeny virus in helper Tlymphocytes which are released in blood.
1.Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2.Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.Assertion is true but reason is false. 4.Both assertion and reason are false.
Cancer cells do not show this property.
1.Metastasis 2.Growth 3.Contact inhibition 4.Both (1)and (3)
Cancer cells divide continuously and give rise to a mass of cells called
1.fibroid 2.tumor 3.oncogene 4.none of these
Tumours that remain confined to their original location and cause little damage are
1.benign 2.malignant 3.carcinogen 4.none of these
Mass of neoplastic cells is called
1.benign tumour 2.fibroid 3.cyst 4.malignant tumour
The cells of malignant tumour
1.grow very rapidly 2.invade and damage other normal tissues
3.show metastasis 4.all of these
Cells sloughed off from malignant tumour move to other parts of the body to form new tumours. This stage of disease is called
1.teratogenesis 2.metastasis 3.mitosis 4.metagenesis
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Contact inhibition (1) Consists of neoplastic cells
(B) Benign tumour (2) Property of normal cells to inhibit uncontrolled growth of other cells
(C) Malignant tumour (3) Property of cancerous cells to form new tumour at distant sites
(D) Metastasis (4) Remains confined to original location
Codes-
A B C D
- 1 3 4 2
- 4 2 3 1
- 2 4 1 3
- 3 1 2 4
Choose the incorrect statement about Malignant tumours.
1.These tumours consist of neoplastic cells. 2.They show the property of metastasis.
3.The cells of this tumour have the property of contact inhibition.
4.The cells of malignant tumour starve the normal cells by competing for vital nutrients.
Transformation of normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells may be induced by
1.physical agents 2.chemical agents 3.biological agents 4.all of these
The cancer-causing agents are called
1.carcinogens 2.teratogens 3.mutagens 4.none of these
X-rays lead to neoplastic transformation by causing damage to
1.enzymes 2.hormones 3.DNA 4.all of these
The genes that cause cancer are called
1.expressor genes 2.oncogenes 3.regulatory genes 4.structural genes
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Type of Carcinogen) (Example)
(A)Physical agent (1) Oncogenic virus
(B)Chemical agent (2) UV rays
(C)Biological agent (3) Tobacco
(4) Gamma rays
Codes-
A B C
- 4,2 3 1
- 4,1 2 3
- 2 4,3 1
- 3 2 4,1
Cancer causing viruses are called
1.retrovirus 2.rhinovirus 3.oncogenic virus 4.none of these
Choose the correct statements about carcinogens.
(I) Carcinogens transform normal cells into cancerous cells.
(II) These carcinogens could be physical, chemical or biological.
(III) Ionizing radiations like UV-rays damage DNA leading to neoplastic transformation.
(IV) Several proto-oncogenes have been identified in neoplastic cells that get activated under certain conditions.
1.(I) and (III) 2.(I) and (II) 3.(III) and (IV) 4.all of these
Which technique can be used for the detection of cancer of internal organs?
1.Radiography 2.CT 3.MRI 4.All of these
Computed tomography uses ‘A’ to generate a three-dimensional image of the internals of an object. Here ‘A’ is
1.rays 2.rays 3.rays 4.UV ray
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Biopsy (1) Threedimensional image using Xrays
(B) Radiograp hy (2) Histopathological study
(C) Computed Tomography (3) Use of strong magnetic fields and nonionising radiations
(D) MRI (4) Use of X-rays
Codes-
A B C D
- 4 2 3 1
- 2 4 1 3
- 3 1 4 2
- 1 3 2 4
The common approaches for the treatment of cancer is/are
1.surgery 2.radiation therapy 3.immunotherapy 4.all of these
Which substance is given to cancer patients to activate their immune system?
1.Carcinogens 2.Cytokinin 3.interferon 4.None of these
Assertion: rays and rays are called carcinogens.
Reason: Carcinogens transform normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells.
1.Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2.Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.Assertion is true but reason is false.
4.Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Computed tomography can be used for the early detection of cancer of internal organs.
Reason: Computed tomography uses UV-rays to generate a three-dimensional image of the internals of an object.
1.Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2.Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.Assertion is true but reason is false.
4.Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: The patients of cancer are given interferon.
Reason: interferon is a biological response modifier.
1.Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2.Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.Assertion is true but reason is false.
4.Both assertion and reason are false.
Opioid receptors are found in
1.central nervous system
2.reproductive system
3.gastrointestinal tract
4.both (1.and (c)
Heroin is commonly called
1.smack 2.cocaine 3.crack 4.none of these
Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesised by
1.methylation of morphine 2.acetylation of morphine
3.glycosylation of morphine 4.nitration of morphine
‘Smack’ is obtained from the
1.leaves of Cannabis sativa 2.latex of Papaver somniferum
3.fruits of Erythroxylum coca 4.flowers of Datura
Refer to the given chemical structure. It is
1.morphine 2.cocaine 3.cannabinoid 4.none of these
Refer to the given figure.
The drug obtained from this plant affects
1.reproductive system 2.respiratory system
3.nervous system 4.none of these
Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the
1.inflorescence of Cannabis sativa 2.latex of Cannabis sativa
3.fruits of Cannabis sativa 4.leaves of Cannabis sativa
Cannabinoids are generally taken by
1.inhalation 2.oral ingestion 3.snorting 4.both (1) and (2)
Cannabinoids affect
1.cardiovascular system 2.nervous system 3.digestive system 4.none of these
Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
1.Heroin is chemically diacetylmorphine
2.Cannabinoids interact with cannabinoid receptors present principally in the gut.
3.Cannabinoids are taken by inhalation and oral ingestion.
4.Heroin is a depressant.
Cocaine is obtained from
1.Papaver somniferum 2.Cannabis sativa 3.Atropa belladonna 4.Erythroxylum coca
Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from
1.Datura 2.Papaver somniferum 3.Atropa belladonna 4.Erythroxylum coca
Crack is usually
1.ingested orally 2.injected 3.inhaled 4.snorted
Refer to the given figure. This plant causes
1.hallucinations 2.insomnia 3.depression 4.all of these
Among the following which plant does not process hallucinogenic properties?
1.Atropa belladonna 2.Datura 3.Cannabis sativa 4.Erythroxylum coca
Among the following which one is abused by some sportspersons?
1.Heroin 2.Barbiturates 3.Cannabinoids 4.Amphetamines
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes gives below.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Smack (1) Hallucination
(B) Cocaine (2) Depressant
(C) Datura (3) Pain killer
(D) Morphine (4) Stimulant
Codes-
A B C D
- 2 4 1 3
- 3 2 4 1
- 1 3 2 4
- 4 1 3 2
Morphine is a very effective
1.sedative 2.pain killer 3.stimulant 4.both (1) and (2)
Which chemical substance of tobacco stimulates adrenal grand to release adrenaline and noradrenaline?
1.Tannic acid 2.Nicotine 3.Curamin 4.Catechin
Whose concentration is increased in blood by smoking?
1.Carbon dioxide 2.Oxygen
3.Carbon monoxide (CO) 4.Water
Choose the correct statements.
(I) Tobacco is smoked, chewed or used as a snuff
(II) Tobacco contains nicotine, an alkaloid.
(III) Smoking decreases heart rate.
(IV) Tobacco chewing is associated with increased risk of cancer of the oral cavity.
1.(I) and (II) 2.(III) and (IV) 3.(I), (II) and (IV) 4.All of these
Among the following which motivates youngsters towards drug and alcohol abuse?
1.Need for adventure 2.Need for excitement 3.Experimentation 4.All of these
Withdrawal syndrome is characterised by
1.anxiety 2.shakiness 3.nausea 4.all of these
When drugs are taken intravenously, there are increased chances of having
1.AIDS 2.Hepatitis B 3.Polio 4.Both (1) and (2)
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A)Adolescence (1) Oral cancer
(B) Addiction (2) Abrupt discontinuation of regular close of drug
(C) Smoking (3) Bridge linking childhood and adulthood
(D) Withdrawal syndrome (4) Psychological euphoria associated with drugs
Codes-
A B C D
- 4 2 3 1
- 3 4 1 2
- 1 3 4 2
- 2 1 3 4
The side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females include
1.masculinisation 2.increased aggressiveness 3.depression 4.all of these
The measure(s) useful for the prevention and control of alcohol and drug abuse among adolescents is/are
1.avoid undue peer pressure 2.education and counselling 3.looking for danger sign 4.all of these
Assertion: Cocaine is obtained from coca plant.
Reason: It has a potent stimulating action on central nervous system.
1.Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2.Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.Assertion is true but reason is false. 4.Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Withdrawal syndrome is characterised by anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating.
Reason: Withdrawal syndrome is not relieved even when use of drugs is resumed again.
1.Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2.Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.Assertion is true but reason is false.
4.Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Those who take drugs intravenously are much more likely to acquire AIDS and Hepatitis B.
Reason: The viruses of AIDS and Hepatitis B are transferred from one person to another by sharing of infected needles and syringes.
1.Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2.Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3.Assertion is true but reason is false.
4.Both assertion and reason are false.
Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
(a) Anthracis (b) Silicosis (c) Emphysema (d) Botulism
Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?
(a) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
(b) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
(c) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(d) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”?
(a) Flowers (b) Latex (c) Leaves (d) Roots
In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
(a) Elephantiasis (b) Ascariasis (c) Amoebiasis (d) Ringworm disease
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
(a) Psoriasis (b) Rheumatoid arthritis (c) Vitiligo (d) Alzheimer’s disease
Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II) and select the correct option.
MALT constitutes about ________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
(a) 20% (b) 70% (c) 10% (d) 50%
Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to nonacceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejections?
(a) Cell – mediated immune response (b) Hormonal immune response
(c) Physiological immune response (d) Autoimmune response
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
(a) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.
(b) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
(c) Mutations inactive the cell control.
(d) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to:
(a) Allergic response (b) Graft rejection
(c) Auto-immune disease (d) Active immunity
-
Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:
(a) Activated pathogens (b) Harvested antibodies
(c) Gamma globulin (d) Attenuated pathogens
-
Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?
(a) Human immunodeficiency virus (b) Chikungunya virus
(c) Ebola virus (d) Hepatitis B virus
-
HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:
(a) Leucocytes (b) Helper T- Lymphocytes (c) Thrombocytes (d) B- Lymphocytes
-
Select the wrong statements.
(a) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallised.
(b) The term ‘contagium vivum fluidum‘ was coined by M.W. Bejerinek.
(c) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in human being are caused by viruses.
(d) The viroids were discovered by D.J. Ivanowski.
-
Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to:
(a) cell-mediated immune response. (b) passive immune response.
(c) innate immune response. (d) humoral immune response.
-
If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidences?
(a) Serum albumins (b) Haemocytes (c) Serum globulins (d) Fibrinogen in plasma
-
Which one of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
(a) lg M (b) lg A (c) lg G (d) lg D
-
Asthma may be attributed to:
(a) bacterial infection of the lungs. (b) allergic reaction of the mast cell in the lungs.
(c) inflammation of the trachea. (d) accumulation of fluid in the lungs.
-
Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity?
(a) Enterobius vermicularis (b) Trichinella spiralis
(c) Ascaris lumbricoides (d) Ancylostoma duodenale
-
Match each disease (given in column I) with its correct type of vaccine (given in column II).
-
The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon:
(a) mucosa and submucosa of colon only. (b) food in intestine.
(c) blood only. (d) erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon.
-
Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?
(a) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) (b) Trichomoniasis
(c) Encephalitis (d) Syphilis
-
Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?
(a) Influenza (b) Babesiosis (c) Blastomycosis (d) Syphilis
-
Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below?
(a) Hallucinogen (b) Depressant (c) Stimulant (d) Pain – killer
- At which stage of HIV infection does one
usually show symptoms of AIDS?
(a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person.
(b) When the infected retrovirus enters host cells.
(c) When HIV damages large number of helper T-lymphocytes.
(d) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.
-
Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the newborn infants because it contains
(1) Natural killer cells (2) Monocytes (3) Macrophages (4) Immunoglobulin A
-
Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft?
(1) Auto- immune responses (2) Humoral immune response
(3) Inflammatory immune response (4) Cell-mediated immune response
-
Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by :
(1) methylation of morphine (2) acetylation of morphine
(3) glycosylation of morphine (4) nitration of morphine
Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid.
(1) Plasmodium vivax/UTI test. (2) Streptococcus pneumoniae/Widal test
(3) Salmonella typhi/Anthrone test (4) Salmonella typhi/Widal test
Humans have acquired immune system that produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still innate immune system is present at the time of birth because it
(1) is very specific and uses different macrophages.
(2) produces memory cells for mounting fast secondary response.
(3) has natural killer cells which can phagocytose and destroy microbes.
(4) provides passive immunity.
Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from:
(1) Papaver somniferum (2) Atropha belladonna (3) Erythroxylum coca (4) Datura
Match the following columns and select the correct option :
Column – I Column – II
(i) Typhoid (a) Haemophilus influenzae
(ii) Malaria (b) Wuchereria bancrofti
(iii) Pneumonia (c) Plasmodium vivax
(iv) Filariasis (d) Salmonella typhi
(1) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b) (2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d) (4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
The yellowish fluid “colostrum” secreted by mammary glands of mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protectthe infant. This type of immunity is called as :
(1) Passive immunity (2) Active immunity (3) Acquired immunity (4) Autoimmunity
Match List – I with List – II
List – I |
List – II |
||
| a) | Filariasis | i) | Haemophilu influenzae |
| b) | Amoebiasis | ii) | Trichophyton |
| c) | Pneumonia | iii) | Wuchereria bancrofti |
| d) | Ringworm | iv) | Entamoeba histolytica |
a b c d
1) iii iv i ii
2) i ii iv iii
3) ii iii i iv
4) iv i iii ii
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defence mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.
Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Both Statements I and Statement II are correct
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.
1) Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
2) Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
3) Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter
4) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defence present at the time of birth.