33 BIOTECHNOLOGY PRINCIPAL AND PROCESSES QUESTION
BIOTECHNOLOGY PRINCIPAL AND PROCESSES QUESTION
EFB stands for
(A) English Federation of Biology
(B) European federation of Biology
(C) English Federation of Biotechnology
(D) European federation of Biotechnology
Two core techniques that enabled birth of modern biotechnology are
(A) Physical & biological engineering
(B) Bioprocess & genetic engineering
(C) Molecular & cellular genetics
(D) None of these
Biotechnology uses techniques to alter chemistry of
(A) Protein & Lipid (B) Protein & RNA
(C) Lipid & DNA (D) RNA & DNA
In chemical engineering processes, it is important to maintain
(A) maintain microbe-free environment
(B) microbe-full environment
(C) sterile environment
(D) more than one option
Unique combinations of genetic setup is naturally provided by
(A) Sexual reproduction (B) Asexual reproduction
(C) Biotechnology (D) More than one option
All genetic changes occurring naturally are
(A) harmful to organism & its population
(B) beneficial for organism & its population
(C) not harmful for organism & its population
(D) Both A & C
Genetic information is preserved by
(A) sexual reproduction (B) asexual reproduction
(C) Both of these (D) none of these
When a piece of DNA is transferred to an alien organism as it is
(A) it will multiply itself
(B) it will not be able to multiply itself
(C) it will be present in progeny cells of organism.
(D) Both (A) & (C)
Chromosome replication is initiated at
(A) gateway of replication a specific RNA sequence
(B) origin of replication a specific RNA sequence
(C) path of replication a specific RNA sequence
(D) None of these
For alien DNA to replicate it needs to be a part of
(A) chromosome without origin of replication site
(B) mitochondrial DNA with origin of replication site
(C) chromosome with origin of replication site
(D) cytoplasmic DNA with origin of replication site
Plasmid is-
(A) autonomously replicating, extra chromosomal
(B) non- autonomously replicating extra chromosomal
(C) autonomously replicating chromosomal
(D) non-autonomously replicating extrachromosomal
Plasmid is
(A) Linear RNA (B) Circular RNA
(C) Linear DNA (D) Circular DNA
First recombinant DNA involved native plasmid of
(A) Escherichia coli
(B) Salmonella typhimurium
(C) Streptococcus pneumonia
(D) Clostridium butylicom
First recombinant DNA was made by
(A) Herbert Cohen & Stanley Boyer, 1972
(B) Stanley Cohen & Herbert Boyer, 1992
(C) Stanley Cohen & Herbert Boyer, 1972
(D) Herbert Cohen & Stanley Boyer, 1992
The recombinant DNA was made
(A) before discovery of DNA cutting restriction enzymes
(B) after discovery of DNA cutting restriction enzymes
(C) after discovery of DNA cutting Ligases
(D) before discovery of DNA cutting Ligases
The plasmid DNA linked with cut piece of DNA acts as
(A) host
(B) vector
(C) medium to transfer the DNA piece
(D) more than one option
Linking of antibiotic resistance gene with plasmid is done using enzyme
(A) Ligase (B) Lyase (C) Hydrolase (D) Nuclease
The plasmid joined with required DNA of interest is transferred into…….. by Boyer.
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Salmonella typhimurium
(C) Streptococcus pneumonia (D) Clostridium butylicom
The key tools for recombinant DNA technology are
(A) Restrication enzyme, polymerase, hydrolase, vectors
(B) Recognition enzyme, polymerase, ligase, vector
(C) Restriction endonuclease, polymerase, ligase, vector
(D) Restriction enzyme, polymerase, dehydrogenase vector
In 1963, two restriction endonucleases were isolated in E. Coli that restricted growth of bacteriophage by
(A) cutting DNA (B) adding methyl group to DNA
(C) removing methyl group to DNA (D) more than one option
The first restriction endonuclease was
(A) Hind-III (B) Hind-II (C) Hind-I (D) Hind-IV
EcoRI comes from
(A) genus Eichhonia (B) species coli
(C) genus Echinus (D) species crispus
Recognition sequence is
(A) Specific sugar sequence in DNA which is recognized by restriction endonuclease
(B) Specific protein sequence which is recognized by restriction endonuclease
(C) Specific lipase sequence which is recognized by restriction endonuclease
(D) Specific base sequence in DNA which is recognized by restriction enconulcease
The convention for naming restriction endonucleases is
(A) First two letters come from genus & third from species of prokaryotic cell from which they were isolated.
(B) First two letters come from species & third from genus of prokaryotic cell from which they were isolated.
(C) First letter come from genus & second two from species of prokaryotic cell from which they were isolated.
(D) First letter come from species & second two from genus of prokaryotic cell from which they were isolated
Roman number indicate
(A) order in which enzyme were isolated
(B) strain of bacteria
(C) lab number in which enzyme was isolated
(D) none of these
Restriction enzymes belong to
(A) Exonucleases (B) Endonucleases
(C) Both (D) None
Exonuclease cuts DNA from
(A) specific position within DNA (B) ends of DNA
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
Restriction enzyme recognize
(A) Paleondromic sequence of nucleoside in DNA
(B) Palindromic sequence of nucleoside in DNA
(C) Paleondromic sequence of nucleotide in DNA
(D) Palindromic sequence of nucleotide in DNA
ECoRI cuts DNA at
Which of the following is a palindrome?
(A) 5′ – GAATAC – 3′
3′ – CTTATG – 5′
(B) 5′ – GATATAC – 3′
3′ – CTATATG – 5′
(C) 5′ – GAATTC – 3′
3′ – CTTAAG – 5′
(D) All of these
Restriction enzyme cuts DNA
(A) between same two bases on opposite strands, in centre of DNA sequence recognized
(B) between same two bases on opposite strands, a little away from centre of DNA sequence recognized
(C) between different two bases on opposite strands, in centre of DNA sequence recognized
(D) between different two bases on opposite strands, living away from centre of DNA sequence recognized.
Same restriction enzyme produce
(A) same kind sticky ends joined using endonucleases
(B) different kinds of sticky ends joined using ligase
(C) same kind of sticky ends joined using ligase
(D) different kind of sticky ends joined using endonucleases
Identify correct labeling
| (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
| (A) vector plasmid | Recombinant DNA | Foreign DNA |
| (B) Foreign DNA | Vector plasmid | Recombinant
DNA |
| (C) Recombinant DNA | Vector plasmid | Foreign DNA |
| (D) vector Plasmid | Foreign DNA | Recombinant
DNA |
The process of ‘Transformation’ is taking place when
(A) bacteria replicates and makes copies of rDNA with it
(B) bacteria picks up rDNA
(C) foreign gene is added to cloning host prokaryote cell
(D) more than one option
Technique used for separation of DNA fragments are
(A) Gel electrophoresis (B) DNA fingerprinting
(C) PCR (D) DNA cloning
DNA fragments are
(A) negatively charged (B) positively charged
(C) neutral (D) none of these
In gel electrophoresis, DNA are forced to move towards
(A) anode under magnetic field (B) cathode under magnetic field
(C) anode under electric field (D) cathode under electric field
Matrix used in electrophoresis is
(A) ethidium bromide (B) agarose gel
(C) natural polymer extracted from sea weeds
(D) more than one option
Ethidium bromide is used to stain because
(A) DNA fragments are visible without staining
(B) DNA fragments are not visible under staining
(C) DNA fragments are not visible without staining
(D) DNA fragments are visible under staining
Stained DNA is exposed to
(A) visible light (B) UV light (C) IR light (D) Radio wave
Colour of DNA visible under UV light after Ethidium bromide staining is
(A) blue (B) black (C) orange (D) green
The extraction of separated bands of DNA from agarose gel are
(A) Dilution (B) Elition (C) Elution (D) Delution
(i) |
(ii) |
(iii) |
| (A) Largest
DNA band |
Smallest
DNA band |
Wells |
| (B) Wells | Largest DNA
bands |
Smallest DNA
bands |
| (C) Smallest
DNA bands |
Largest DNA
bands |
Wells |
| (D) Smallest
DNA bands |
Wells | Largest DNA
bands |
Plasmids in bacterial cells replicate
(A) depending on chromosomal DNA
(B) independent of chromosomal DNA
(C) depending on extra-nuclear DNA
(D) more than one option
Bacteriophages
(A) replicate independent of other organisms
(B) replicate inside bacterial cell, controlled by chromosomal DNA of bacteria.
(C) replicate inside bacterial cell autonomously
(D) more than one option
Bacteriophages serve as ____ in biotechnology.
(A) host (B) vector
(C) molecular marker (D) enzyme
Identify Bam HI in given plasmid figure
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
Identify antibiotic resistance gene in figure
(A) Sal I (B) EcoRI (C) 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑅 (D) pBR322
Identify ECoRI in the plasmid
(A) (iv) (B) (v) (C) (iii) (D) (ii)
‘A’ & ‘B’ in figure are
(A) ampR & tetR (B) ori & ampR
(C) tetR & ampR (D) rop & tetR
‘rop’ codes for i & is shown in figure by ii
(A) proteins involved in replication ; D
(B) proteins involved in transcription, C
(C) proteins involved in transcription, D
(D) proteins involved in replication, C
‘Ori’ means ____ & is shown in figure by
(A) origin of translocation; C (B) origin of replication ; D
(C) origin of translation ; D (D) origin of replication; C
Identify pvu II in given figure of plasmid
(A) i (B) ii (C) vi (D) iv
Which of the following is correct?
(A) Any piece of DNA linked to ori gene will be replicated
(B) Number of replication copies is under control of recognition site
(C) Vector should not be chosen based on number of copies supported by it
(D) More than one option
Transformants include
(A) cells which have picked vector with foreign DNA ligated to it.
(B) cells which have picked up vector without foreign DNA ligated to it
(C) cells which have not picked up vector
(D) Both (A) & (B)
Recombinants are
(A) cells which have picked vector with foreign DNA ligated to it.
(B) cells which have picked up vector without foreign DNA ligated to it
(C) cells which have not picked up vector
(D) Both (A) & (B)
Which is true about recombinant & transformant?
(A) All transformants are recombinants
(B) All recombinants are transformants
(C) no relation between these two
(D) Both are same thing
Normal E.coli cell-
(A) Carries resistance against antibiotics ampicillin, tetracycline and kanamycin
(B) Does not carry resistance against antibiotics ampicillin, tetracycline and kanamycin
(C) Carries resistance against ampicillin but not tetracycline and kanamycin
(D) Carries resistance against tetracycline but not ampicillin and kanamycin
In order to link alien DNA, vector needs to have ____ recognition sites for commonly used restriction enzymes.
(A) very few (B) preferably single
(C) many (D) more than one option
Assertion- Vector should have many recognition sites for commonly used restriction enzymes.
Reason- Lot of recognition sites generate several fragments, which make gene cloning easy.
(A) Assertion and Reason are both correct and Reason is correct explanation for Assertion
(B) Assertion and Reason are both correct but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion
(C) Assertion and Reason both are incorrect
(D) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
If a foreign gene is ligated at Bam HI site of vector PBR322, then the resistance for ____.
(A) tetracycline is lost (B) ampicillin is lost
(C) tetracycline is not lost (D) more than one option
The recombinants mentioned previous question non-recombinants by-
(A) Plating the transformants on tetracycline
(B) Planting the transformants on ampicillin
(C) Both of these are necessary
(D) None of these
Recombinants mentioned in ‘If a foreign gene is ligated at Bam HI site of vector PBR322’ will–
(A) Grow in ampicillin and tetracycline both
(B) Grow in ampicillin but not tetracycline
(C) Grow in tetracycline but not ampicillin
(D) Grow neither in tetracycline nor in ampicillin
Non-recombinants transformants will
(A) Grow in ampicillin and tetracycline both
(B) Grow in ampicillin but not tetracycline
(C) Grow in tetracycline but not ampicillin
(D) Grow neither in tetracycline nor in ampicillin
Non-transformants E.coli will-
(A) Grow in ampicillin and tetracycline both
(B) Grow in ampicillin but not tetracycline
(C) Grow in tetracycline but not ampicillin
(D) Grow neither in tetracycline nor in ampicillin
When rDNA is inserted in coding sequence of 𝛽-galactosidase,
(A) The enzyme gets synthesized
(B) Blue coloured colonies are produced
(C) Colourless colonies are produced
(D) Orange colonies are produced
Ti-plasmid stands for ____ and are present in ____.
(A) Tumor inhibiting, Agrobacterium speciense
(B) Tumor inducing, Agrobacterium speciense
(C) Tumor inhibiting, Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(D) Tumor inducing, Agrobacterium tumifaciens
The Ti-plasmid being used as cloning vector-
(A) causes crown gall disease
(B) is not pathogenic
(C) is pathogenic
(D) More than one option
DNA is-
(A) hydrophilic and can pass through cell membrane
(B) hydrophobic and can pass through cell membrane
(C) hydrophilic and cannot pass through cell membrane
(D) hydrophobic and cannot pass through cell membrane
Bacterial host cells are made competent to take up rDNA by-
(A) Treating with 𝑁𝑎+ (B) Treating with 𝐴𝑙3+
(C) Treating with 𝐶𝑎2+ (D) More than one options
Choose the correct sequence to be followed to enable bacteria to take up rDNA.
(i) Treating with divalent cation.
(ii) Heat shock (42ºC).
(iii) Incubating on ice.
(A) i-ii-iii-ii (B) i-iii-ii-iii
(C) ii-iii-i-ii (D) iii-ii-i-iii
Other methods for introducing foreign DNA into host cells are-
(A) Micro-injection for animal cells (B) Gene gun for plant cells
(C) Disarmed pathogens (D) All of these
In micro-injection technique, rDNA is injected into-
(A) Cytoplasm (B) Nucleus
(C) Cell membrane (D) Lysosomes
In biolistics, cells are bombarded with high velocity-
(A) Micro-particles of iron
(B) Macro-particles of tungsten
(C) Micro-particles of gold
(D) More than one option
Identity correct sequence of process of rDNA technology :
(i) transferring rDNA into host
(ii) isolation of DNA fragment desired
(iii) isolation of DNA
(iv) culturing host cells in medium at large scale
(v) fragmentation of DNA by restriction enzyme
(vi) ligation of DNA fragment into a vector
(vii) extraction of desired product
(A) (iii) – (ii) – (v) – (vi) – (i) – (iv) – (vii)
(B) (iii) – (v) – (i) – (vi) – (ii) – (iv) – (vii)
(C) (iii) – (v) – (ii) – (vi) – (i) – (iv) – (vii)
(D) (iii) – (v) – (vi) – (i) – (ii) – (iv) – (vii)
Nucleic acid is genetic material of:
(A) some organisms (B) no organism
(C) all organisms without exception
(D) most organisms with some exception
How many of given enzymes involved in extraction of genetic material from cell of organisms are:
(i) cellulase (ii) chitinase (iii) lysozyme
(iv) Ribonuclease (v) protease (vi) deoxyribonuclease
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 6
Match the following:
A B
(i) cellulase I. plant
(ii) chitinase II. Bacteria
(iii) lysozyme III. Fungi
(i) (ii) (iii) (i) (ii) (iii)
(A) I III II (B) II III I
(C) III I II (D) I II III
Purified DNA is precipitated out by addition of:
(A) warm acetic acid (B) chilled acetic acid
(C) warm ethanol (D) chilled ethanol
The figure shows DNA separated out, removed by :
(A) spooning (B) spooling (C) spilling (D) speeling
The precipitated DNA is seen as :
(A) collection of fine threads in suspension
(B) collection of fine threads in solution
(C) coagulated mass in suspension
(D) coagulated mass in solution
To check the progression of restriction enzyme digestion, _______ is used.
(A) PCR (B) gel electrophoresis
(C) DNA fingerprinting (D) Selectable marker gene
Preparation of rDNA involves the enzymes:
(A) specific restriction enzyme (B) gene of interest
(C) vector DNA (D) all of these
PCR stands for:
(A) Polynuclease chain reaction (B) Polylipase chain reaction
(C) Polyamide chain reaction (D) None of these
PCR is an:
A) in vitro process B) in vivo process
C) both D) none
How many sets of primers are used in PCR?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Enzyme involved in PCR is:
(A) DNA endonuclease (B) RNA polymerase
(C) DNA polymerase (D) DNase
The enzyme involved in PCR with thermostability is isolated from:
(A) Thermus aquaticus fungi
(B) Escherechia coli bacteria
(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciense bacteria
(D) None of these
Identify correct labeling of sequence:
| (i) | (ii) | (iii) |
| (A) Annealing | Denaturation | Extension |
| (B) Denaturation | Extension | Annealing |
| (C) Denaturation | Annealing | Extension |
| (D) Extension | Annealing | Denaturation |
A-Ampicillin resistance gene is called selectable marker in case E.coli is made to take up rDNA bearing ampicillin resistance gene.
B-Such E.coli coil grow on amplicillin containing agar plates.
Choose right option with regards to above statements.
(A) Both are correct (B) Only A is correct
(C) Only B is correct (D) None is correct
If a protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, it is called:
(A) secondary protein (B) recombinant protein
(C) transmitted protein (D) tertiary protein
In continuous culture system:
(A) used medium is drained at the end
(B) used medium is drained twice in the whole process
(C) used medium is continuously drained out
(D) none of these
Bioreactors are:
(A) large vessels
(B) used for large quantity production
(C) used for biological conversion of raw materials into products
(D) all of these
Downstream processing includes :
(A) separation (B) purification
(C) both the above (D) none of these
A- Suitable preservatives are added B- These formulations need clinical trials.
C- Quality control testing is uniform for all the products.
How many of the above statements is incorrect?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Optimal conditions for growth include. How many of the following-
pH, Salt, Temperature, Vitamin, Oxygen
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 4
Identify types of stirred-tank bioreactor-
| (i) | (ii) |
| (A) Simple stirred-tank
bioreactor |
complex stirredtank
bioreactor |
| (B) Complex stirred-tank
bioreactor |
simple stirredtank
bioreactor |
| (C) Simple | Sparged |
| (D) Sparged | Simple |
Identify the correct labels-
(i) (ii) (iii)
(A) Motor Culture broth Sterile air
(B) Culture broth Motor Sterile air
(C) Motor Sterile air Culture broth
(D) Sterile air Culture broth Motor
Samling ports are mainly required to–
(A) Keep adding samples into Bioreactors
(B) Withdraw small volume of culture
(C) Add Acid/Base for pH control (D) All of these
Sterile air bubbles are sprayed in the biovector in a type of bioreactor. That is because-
(A) air bubbles makes it easier to agitate the system
(B) air bubbles increase surface area for oxygen transfer
(C) air bubbles enable microbes to grow (D) none of these
The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is :
(a) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (b) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(c) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (d) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
(a) Retrovirus (b) Ti plasmid (c) pBR 322 (d) l phage
The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with:
(a) Acetocarmine (b) Aniline blue (c) Ethidium bromide (d) Bromophenol blue
A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as :
(a) Vector (b) Plasmid (c) Structural gene (d) Selectable marker
What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
(a) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
(b) Positively charged fragments move to farther end.
(c) Negatively charged fragments do not move.
(d) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves.
The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called :
(a) Downstream processing (b) Bioprocessing
(c) Post production processing (d) Upstream processing
Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
(a) Independent replication (b) Circular structure
(c) Transferable (d) Single – stranded
The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
(a) Thermus aquaticus (b) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
(c) Bacillus subtilis (d) Pseudomonas putida
Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
(a) Hind II (b) Protease (c) DNase I (d) RNase
The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of :
(a) Probes (b) Selectable markers (c) Ligases (d) Restriction enzymes
The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called :
(a) Vector (b) Template (c) Carrier (d) Transformer
An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybridization technique does not use :
(a) Electrophoresis (b) Blotting (c) Autoradiography (d) PCR
In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterised by :
(a) PCR and RAPD (b) Northern blotting (c) Electrophoresis and HPLC (d) Microscopy
Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA?
(a) Bacterial artificial chromosome (b) Yeast artificial chromosome
(c) Plasmid (d) Cosmid
Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are:
(a) T-DNA (b) BAC and YAC (c) Expression Vectors (d) T/A Cloning vectors
Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA
(2) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
(3) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(4) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA
DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with :
(1) Isopropanol (2) Chilled ethanol
(3) Methanol at room temperature (4) Chilled chloroform
Match the following enzymes with their functions :
(a) Restriction endonuclease (i) Joins the DNA fragments
(b) Restriction exonuclease (ii) Extends primers on genomic DNA template
(c) DNA ligase (iii) Cuts DNA at specific position
(d) Taq polymerase (iv) Removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv d-ii (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR322 are :-
(1) Ampicillin and Tetracycline (2) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
(3) Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline (4) Tetracycline and Kanamycin
A selectable marker is used to:
(1) help in eliminating the non-transformants, so that the transformants can be regenerated
(2) identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien organism
(3) select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific crop
(4) mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using restriction enzyme
Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements.
(a) DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the Anode terminal
(b) DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect movement of DNA.
(c) Smaller the size of DNA fragment larger is the distance it travels through it.
(d) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing UV radiation.
Choose correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from ends of DNA is:
(1) DNA ligase (2) Endonuclease (3) Exonuclease (4) Protease
First discovered restriction endonuclease that always cuts DNA molecule at a particular point by recognising a specific sequence of six base pairs is:
(1) EcoR1 (2) Adenosine deaminase (3) Thermostable DNA polymerase (4) Hind II
In Recombinant DNA technology antibiotics are used :
(1) to keep medium bacteria-free (2) to detect alien DNA
(3) to impart disease-resistance to the host plant (4) as selectable markers
In a mixture, DNA fragments are separated by :-
(1) Bioprocess engineering (2) Restriction digestion
(3) Electrophoresis (4) Polymerase chain reaction
The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is
1) 5’ – GGATCC – 3’, 3’ – CCTAGG – 5’
2) 5’ – GAATTC – 3’, 3’ – CTTAAG – 5’
3) 5’ – GGAACC – 3’ , 3’ – CCTTGG – 5’
4) 5’ = CTTAAG – 3’ 3’ – GAATTC – 5’
Identify the wrong statement with regard to restriction enzymes
1) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases
2) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of DNA sequence
3) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites
4) They are useful in genetic engineering
In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of
1) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation 2) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
3) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation 4) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
Choose the correct pair from the following
1) Exonucleases – Make cuts at specific positions within DNA
2) Ligases – Join the two DNA molecules
3) Polymerases – Break the DNA into fragments
4) Nucleases – Separate the two strands of DNA
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in vector, is termed
1) Recognition site 2) Selectable marker 3) Ori site 4) Palindromic sequence
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as :
(1) Bright orange bands (2) Dark red bands
(3) Bright blue bands (4) Yellow bands
Which of the following is not an application of PCR ( Polymerase Chain reaction ) ?
1) Gene amplification 2) Purification of isolated protein
3) Detection of gene mutation 4) Molecular diagnosis
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:
1) DNA 2) Histones 3) Polysaccharides 4) RNA
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR(Polymerase Chain reaction)?
1) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing 2) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
3) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension 4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for -galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.Coli strain
1) The transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce-galactoside.
2) It will lead to lysis of host cell.
3) It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability
4) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
During the process of gene amplification using PCR , if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning , then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first ?
- Extension 2. Denaturation 3. Ligation 4. Annealing
Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification
Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Bothe (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Which one of the following statements is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?
1) The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution
2) The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide
3) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel
4) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light
In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme?
1) 5’ G A T A C T 3’; 3’ C T A T G A 5’
2) 5’ G A A T T C 3’ ; 3’ C T T A A G 5’
3) 5’ C T C A G T 3’ ; 3’ G A G T C A 5’
4) 5’ G T A T T C 3’ ; 3’ C A T A A G 5’
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognize specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence.
Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Both Statements I and Statement II are correct
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?
1) Presence of origin of replication
2) Presence of a marker gene
3) Presence of single restriction enzyme site
4) Presence of two or more recognition sites