26 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH QUESTIONS
26 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
According to World Health Organisation, a reproductively healthy individual possesses
A) Functionally and morphologically normal reproductive organs
B) Normal emotional and behavioural interactions with society
C) Total well-being in all aspects of reproductions
D) All of these
Which country commenced the action plans at national level to achieve total reproductive health as a social goal?
A) China
B) Japan
C) India
D) Argentina
Consider the following statements:
a. In India, family planning program was initiated in 1982.
b. Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) program is an improved version of family planning programs.
Select the correct option
A) (a) is true, (b) is false
B) Both (a) and (b) are false
C) (a) is false, (b) is true
D) Both (a) and (b) are true
In what way awareness can be created among people about reproduction related aspects?
a. Through audio-visual and print media advertisements.
b. Creating fear among adolescents about sexual practices.
c. Introduction of sex education at school.
Select the most appropriate option
A) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
B) (b) and (c) are correct
C) (a) and (b) are correct
D) (a) and (c) are correct
While providing sex education to adolescents at school, which attribute would be least significant?
A) Safe and hygienic sexual practices.
B) Information about postnatal care of mother and child.
C) Information about STDs and AIDS.
D) Discouraging children from believing in myths related to sexual practices.
RCH programs helps to curb
A) Population explosion
B) Female foeticide
C) Sex abuse
D) All of these
Statutory ban on amniocentesis helps to check or prevent
A) Female foeticides and massive child immunization
B) Sexually transmitted diseases
C) Genetic disorders in foetus
D) All of these
Consider the following statements:
a. In amniocentesis, small sample
b. Foetal sex can be determined through amniocentesis by studying the chromosomal pattern in amniotic fluid.
Select the correct option.
A) (a) is true, (b) is false
B) Both (a) and (b) are false
C) (a) is false, (b) is true
D) Both (a) and (b) are true
Amniocentesis can be used to detect all the listed diseases except
A) Hemophilia
B) Malaria
C) Sickle cell anemia
D) Down syndrome
In the context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?
A) It is used for prenatal sex determination.
B) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome.
C) It can be used for detection of cleft palate.
D) It is usually done when a woman is 14–16 weeks pregnant.
Assertion: Sex education is provided to adolescents at school only.
Reason: Sex education is introduced to teach adolescents about myths related of sexual practices only.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Amniocentesis helps to detect foetal disorders during early pregnancy.
Reason: Jaundice can be prevented in foetus by amniocentesis.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
The trend of world’s population growth from the year 2000 to 2011 is
A) Increasing
B) Decreasing
C) Stable
D) Fluctuating
Match the following columns [
Column I(Year) |
Column II(World population) |
||
| (a) | 2011 | (1) | 2000 million |
| (b) | 1900 | (2) | 7.2 billion |
| (c) | 2000 | (3) | 6 billion |
a b c
1) 3 2 1
2) 1 3 2
3) 2 1 3
4) 3 1 2
Consider the following statements.
a. The world population increased significantly in between the years 1900–2000 as compared to the years 2000–2011.
b. Increased health services had an explosive impact on world’s population growth.
Select the correct option
A) a is false, b is true
B) Both a and b are true
C) a is true, b is false
D) Both a and b are false
Which among the following graph represents accurate population growth pattern of India?
A)
B)
C)
D)
According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate of India was
A) More than five percent
B) Less than one percent
C) Less than two percent
D) More than six percent
Under what circumstances, the growth of population declines?
a. Increased number of people in
b. Decreased infant mortality rate.
c. Increased maternal mortality rate.
Select the most appropriate option.
A) (a), (b), (c) are correct
B) (a) and (b) are correct
C) Only (c) is correct
D) Only (b) is correct
A population with declined infant mortality rate would show
A) Zero growth
B) Increased growth
C) Decreased growth
D) Fluctuating growth
Which among the following measure can be opted to check the population growth rate?
A) Contraceptives
B) MTP
C) Amniocentesis
D) ART
Consider the following statements.
a. ‘One child norm’ is a threat to population growth rate of India.
b. Statutory raising of marriageable age of males and females check the population growth rate.
Select the correct option.
A) a is true, b is false
B) Both a and b are true
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are false
Marriageable age of males and female in India is
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 21 years and 18 years, respectively
D) 18 years and 21 years, respectively
An ideal contraceptive should have all the listed characteristics, except
A) User friendly
B) Reversible
C) Easily available
D) Decrease sex drive
Consider the following statements:
(a) Natural method of contraception is a traditional method to prevent pregnancy.
(b) The basic principle of natural method of contraception is to avoid the contact between ovum and sperms
Select the correct option.
A) a is true, b is false
B) a is false, b is true
C) Both a and b are true
D) Both a and b are false
In periodic abstinence method
A) Female has to take contraceptive pills periodically
B) Couple should avoid coitus periodically
C) Couple should avoid coitus for few months or years
D) female do not ovulate for few months.
During which period of a typical menstrual cycle of 28 days, coitus should be avoided to prevent conception naturally?
A) 0–5 days, i.e., during menstrual flow
B) 5–8 days after menstrual flow
C) 11–16 days after menstrual flow
D) 23–26 days after menstrual flow
How does coitus interruptus method is practiced by couples?
A) By avoiding coitus at the time of ovulation
B) By avoiding insemination just before ejaculation
C) By ejaculation semen in the condoms
D) By avoiding the insertion of penis into the vagina
In lactational amenorrhea, chances of conception are nil during
A) 40 days following parturition
B) The time till mother breastfeeds her child
C) Six months following parturition
D) The gestational period of female
Match the following columns.
Select the correct option.
Column I(Natural methodsof contraception) |
Column II(Characteristics) |
||
| (a) | Coitus interruptus | (1) | Avoid intercourse during ovulation |
| (b) | Lactational amenorrhea | (2) | Avoid insemination into vagina |
| (c) | Periodic abstinence | (3) | Ovum is not available for fertilisation |
a b c
(A) 3 1 2
(B) 1 3 2
(C) 3 2 1
(D) 2 3 1
Select the incorrect statement.
A) Natural methods of contraception are riskier but reliable.
B) The act of breastfeeding interrupt ovulation during menstrual cycle.
C) The chances of conception are higher during the ovulation period.
D) Natural methods of contraception do not interfere with the sexual drive of an
The barrier method of contraception
(a) can be used by males only
(b) prevents physical meeting of sperm and ovum
(c) are used at the time of coitus
Select the most appropriate option.
A) (a) and (c) are correct
B) (a), (b), (c) are correct
C) (b) and (c) are correct
D) Only (b) is correct
Select the incorrect statement regarding condoms.
A) These are made up of thin latex sheath.
B) These are used to cover penis or cervix.
C) They help the ejaculate to enter uterus but not into fallopian tube.
D) Nirodh is a popular brand of male condoms.
Use of condoms can help to prevent
A) AIDS and other STDs
B) Spermatogenesis
C) Coitus
D) All of these
What is the similarity between vaults and diaphragms?
A) They both prevent ovulation in females.
B) They are used to cover penis in males.
C) They are used to cover cervix during coitus.
D) They release copper ions to suppress sperm motility.
Consider the following statements:
(a) Cervical caps and vaults are not cost effective as they cannot be reused.
(b) Contraceptive efficiency of vaults and cervical caps can be increased by using spermicidal creams along with these barriers.
Select the correct option
A) a is true, b is false
B) Both a and b are true
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are false
Select the correct statement regarding intra uterine devices (IUDs).
A) They are used by females at the time of copulation.
B) IUDs are inserted in the uterus by doctors.
C) IUDs are not reliable contraceptives.
D) All IUDs release hormones which suppress sperm motility.
Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
(a) LNG 20 (1) Hormone-releasing IUD
(b) Lippes loop (2) Copper releasing IUD
(c) Multiload 375 (3) Non medicated IUD
Select the correct option.
a b c
A) 2 1 3
B) 2 3 1
C) 1 2 3
D) 1 3 2
All the listed IUDs release copper ions except
A) LNG 20
B) Cu 7
C) Cu T
D) Multiload 375
What is significance of copper ions in contraception?
A) They delay ovulation in females.
B) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
C) They increase the level of prolactin so as to suppress the activity of LH and FSH.
D) They decrease the libido and sexual desire of female.
Select the hormone-releasing Intra- Uterine Devices.
A) Multiload 375, Progestasert
B) Progestasert, LNG-20
C) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
D) Vaults, LNG-20
Which of the following is a correct statement?
A) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
B) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
C) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
D) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus
The hormones used for the purpose of contraception in pills and IUDs are
A) Progesterone and estrogen
B) Estrogen and testosterone
C) LH and progesterone
D) Prolactin and testosterone
For the effective results of contraception pills, they should be taken
A) Once every month on the day of ovulation
B) For 21 days daily, followed by a gap of seven days
C) For seven days daily, during the time of ovulation
D) Daily, without any gap
Consider the following statements.
(a) Oral contraceptives inhibit ovulation and implantation to induce contraception.
(b) Menstrual flow does not occur in females after taking oral contraceptives.
Select the correct option.
A) a is true, b is false
B) a is false, b is true
C) Both a and b are false
D) Both a and b are true
Select the incorrect statement regarding ‘Saheli’.
A) It was developed by CDRI, Lucknow, India.
B) It contains high amount of progesterone and estrogen.
C) It is taken once in a week.
D) It has least side effects and high contraceptive value.
The contraceptive ‘saheli’
A) Blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
B) Increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females
C) Is an IUD.
D) Is a post-coital contraceptive.
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding implants?
A) They are used by both males and females.
B) These are placed under the skin.
C) They contain progestogens or combinations of pills.
D) They are effective for longer period as compared to pills.
All the listed contraceptives are effective during emergency to avoid pregnancy,except
A) Progestasert
B) Progestogen pills
C) Vaults
D) Progesterone-estrogen pills
Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?
A) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills
B) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
C) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods
D) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
Consider the following statements.
(a) Emergency contraceptives are taken within 72 hours of coitus to avoid pregnancy.
(b) Sterilisation is the terminal method to prevent any pregnancy as it is irreversible.
Select the correct option.
A) a is true, b is false
B) Both a and b are true
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are false
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A) Vasectomy is the sterilisation procedure in males.
B) Sterilisation method blocks the transport of gametes to prevent conception.
C) In tubectomy, fallopian tubes are removed from female body completely.
D) After tubectomy, menstrual cycle is not disrupted in females.
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
A) Intra uterine devices – Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motilityand fertilizing capacity of sperm
B) Hormonal contraceptives – Prevent/retard entry of sperm, prevent ovulation and fertilisation
C) Vasectomy – Prevents spermatogenesis
D) Barrier methods – Prevents fertilisation
The semen of male after vasectomy
A) Does not contain sperms B) Is not produced in body
C) Lacks fructose and prostaglandins D) Both (a) and (c)
Among the listed options, contraception is achieved through
A) Tubectomy
B) Ovariectomy
C) Hysterectomy
D) Castration
Which of the following diagram depict vasectomy accurately?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Assertion: Menstration does not occur during the intense period of lactation.
Reason: Chances of conception are higher after 1–2 months following parturition.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Use of condoms can prevent the transmission of AIDS.
Reason: AIDS is a fluid-transmitted disease.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Emergency contraceptives contain high level of steroidal preparation.
Reason: Saheli is an emergency contraceptive.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: After vasectomy, sperms are not found in the semen or ejaculate.
Reason: Vas deferens is cut and tied in vasectomy.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Medical termination of pregnancy is
A) Carried out by tubectomy in females
B) Induced abortion
C) Inability to conceive due to certain problem
D) Menopause stage in females
Consider the following statements.
(a) One-fifth of total number of conceived pregnancies in a year, all over the world are terminated through MTP.
(b) MTP restrictions help to check illegal female foeticide in India.
Select the correct option.
A) Both a and b are false
B) a is true, b is false
C) a is false, b is true
D) Both a and b are true
Government of India legalised MTP in the year
A) 1988
B) 1978
C) 1985
D) 1971
To reduce the incidences of illegal abortions, recent MTP (Amendment) Act in India was enacted in
A) 2009
B) 2011
C) 2017
D) 2019
According to MTP Act 2017, a pregnancy may be terminated
A) Within first 12 weeks of pregnancy on the opinion of one medical practitioner
B) Before first six weeks of pregnancy, without any opinion
C) Within first 24 weeks of pregnancy on the opinion of one medical practitioner
D) All of these
On what grounds, pregnancy of more than 12 weeks is terminated through MTP in India?
A) If it imposes life threatening risks to pregnant woman.
B) If the female already has three girl children.
C) If the family history of parents has certain genetic disorder.
D) If the female is widow or divorced
MTP is considered safe upto
A) 12 weeks
B) 24 weeks
C) 26 weeks
D) 28 weeks
A pregnant woman was denied for undergoing MTP as she was not having opinion documents from two registered medical practitioners. The duration of her pregnancy might be
A) 8 weeks
B) 12 weeks
C) 21 weeks
D) 29 weeks
Select the correct statement regarding MTP.
(a) It is carried out up to third trimester of pregnancy.
(b) It is always surgical.
(c) It is widely used as a method of contraception.
(d) It requires the assistance of registered medical practitioner.
Select the most appropriate option
A) (a) and (b) are correct
B) Only (d) is correct
C) (b) and (d) are correct
D) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
Assertion: MTP helps to get rid of unwanted pregnancies due to unprotected intercourse.
Reason: MTPs are considered safe up to 28 weeks of pregnancy.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Ban on amniocentesis helped to reduce the incidences of MTP in India.
Reason: Amniocentesis helps to determine the sex of unborn child.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Sexually transmitted diseases are alternatively known as
A) Contagious diseases
B) Venereal diseases
C) Viral diseases
D) Degenerative diseases
RTI stands for
A) Rubella-Typhoid Infection
B) Rotavirus-Trichomoniasis Infection
C) Reproductive Tract Infection
D) Rotavirus
Among the given options, which set represents sexually transmitted infections (STI) only?
A) Gonorrhea, Chlamydiasis, Trichomoniasis
B) Syphilis, Giardiasis, Genital warts
C) Taeniasis Genital herpes, Leishmaniasis
D) Hepatitis B, Trichinosis, Gonorrhea
Consider the following statements.
(a) AIDS and Hepatitis B are STIs which are caused by virus.
(b) Gonorrhoea and syphilis are caused by bacteria.
Select the correct option.
A) a is true, b is false
B) a is false, b is true
C) Both a and b are false
D) Both a and b are true
Which among the following STIs can be transmitted by blood transfusion and sharing of infected needles with infected person?
A) AIDS
B) Genital warts
C) Gonorrhoea
D) Both (A) and (C)
A pregnant lady was suffering from a STI and various tests confirmed that her baby has also contracted the disease. The pregnant lady must be suffering from
A) Genital herpes
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Chlamydiasis
D) Hepatitis B
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?
A) Genital warts
B) Genital herpes
C) Chlamydiasis
D) Gonorrhoea
The incidences of STDs are more frequent
A) In age group of 15–24 years B) Before the beginning of puberty age
C) In a menopausing woman D) In elder generation
Consider the following statements.
(a) Sexually transmitted diseases can be cured completely if detected early and treated properly.
(b) Early symptoms of STIs include itching, fluid discharge and swelling in genital areas.
Select the correct option.
A) a is true, a is false B) Both a and b are true
C) a is false, b is true D) Both a and b are false
The consequences of delayed treatment of STIs include
(1) ectopic pregnancy (2) still births
(3) petric inflammatory diseases (4) uncontrolled growth of cells
Select the most appropriate option
A) (1) and (2) are correct B) (3) and (4) are correct
C) (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct D) (1), (2) and (3) are correct
Match the following sexually transmitted diseases in Column-I with their causative agent in Column II and select the correct option
Column I Column II
(a) Gonorrhea (1) HIV
(b) Syphilis (2) Neisseria
(c) Genital Warts (3) Treponema
(d) AIDS (4) Human papilloma – virus
Select the correct option.
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 4 2 3 1
W What measures can be taken to prevent STDs among population?
A) Use condom during coitus B) Avoid sex with multiple partners
C) Do not share needles and syringes D) All of these
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specially affect reproductive organs?
A) Chlamydiasis and AIDS B) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
C) Syphilis and Genital herpes D) AIDS and Hepatitis B
Assertion: Gonorrhoea spreads through infected needles during blood transfusion.
Reason: Gonorrhoea cannot be cured completely.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: AIDS can be transmitted through body fluids of affected individual.
Reason: Hepatitis B virus can be found in blood and semen of affected individual.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Consider the following statements.
(a) An infertile couple is unable to produce children due to immunological disorders only.
(b) In human population, males are always fertile while females are either fertile or infertile.
Select the correct option
A) a is true, b is false B) Both a and b are true
C) a is false, b is true D) Both a and b are false
How does assisted reproductive techniques, (ART) help an infertile couple to have children?
A) By easing the process and procedure of adoption.
B) By treating the disease associated with infertility.
C) By carrying out certain fertilisation processes through special techniques.
D) Any of these
W IVF stands for
A) In vitro fertilisation B) In vivo fertilisation
C) Inter–vaginal fertilisation D) Intra vaginal fusion
Where does fertilisation occur in case of IVF?
A) Within the fallopian tube B) In uterus
C) Outside the body D) Inside vagina
In test tube baby program, embryo transfer
A) Is not possible
B) Can be done at eight blastomere stage
C) Can be done after the eight blastomere stage
D) Both (B) and (C)
Which among the listed ARTs are included under embryo transfer (ET) technique?
A) ICSI and IUI B) ZIFT and IUT C) GIFT and ZIFT D) ICSI and GIFT
W A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is
A) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer B) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
C) Gamete intra fallopian transfer D) Gamete internal fertilisation and transfer
Select the correct statement.
A) ZIFT involves the transfer of male’s sperm into fallopian tube of female.
B) In IUT, embryo with more than eight blastomeres is extracted from donor’s body.
C) ZIFT involves the transfer of embryo into fallopian tube at eight blastomere stage.
D) In both ZIFT and IUT, embryo is formed inside the female’s body.
Consider the following statements.
(a) Embryo formed by in-vivo fertilisation could be used in intra uterine transfer.
(b) Fully formed embryo is transferred into the fundus region of uterus in ZIFT
A) a is true, b is false B) a is false, b is true
C) Both a and b are false D) Both a and b are true
Which ART a woman should adept if she does not ovulate or produce a viable egg?
A) ICSI B) AI C) GIFT D) IUI
Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
(a) ZIFT (1) Transfer of ovum into fallopian tube
(b) GIFT (2) Transfer of embryo into the uterus Transfer of embryo into he terus
(C) IUT (3) Transfer of embryo into fallopian tube
Select the correct option.
a b c
A) 3 2 1
B) 1 2 3
C) 2 3 1
D) 3 1 2
‘ICSI’ stands for
A) Infertility case study and inspection B) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
C) Intra cervix sperm insemination D) Intra cytoplasmic sperm interaction
In which technique, sperm is injected directly into the ovum in the laboratory?
A) GIFT B) ICSI C) IUI D) AI
Under what circumstances, artificial insemination could be employed?
A) When females do not ovulate B) Male partner fails to inseminate
C) Female has blocked fallopian tube D) Any of these
In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?
A) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection B) Intrauterine transfer
C) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer D) Artificial insemination
In artificial insemination, sperms are transferred into
A) Vagina B) Uterus C) Ovum D) Vagina or uterus
How intra uterine insemination (IUI) differ from intra uterine transfer (IUT)?
A) Embryo is transferred into uterus in IUI.
B) IUI is a type of IVF technique.
C) IUI involves the transfer of semen into female’s uterus.
D) Sperm is directly injected into ovum in IUI.
W Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as
A) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance
B) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality
C) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus
D) Implantation of detective embryo in the uterus
Assertion: In all ART, fertilisation occurs outside the female’s body.
Reason: Infertile couples cannot produce gametes.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: ICSI technique is different from AI.
Reason: ICSI is carried out in laboratory.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’:
(a) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(b) increases the concentration of oestrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
(c) is a post-coital contraceptive. (d) is an IUD.
The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD’s is:
(a) They inhibit gametogenesis. (b) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation.
(c) They inhibit ovulation. (d) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be uitable for fertilisation?
(a) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer (b) Artificial insemination
(c) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (d) Intrauterine transfer
In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant.
(b) It is used for prenatal sex determination.
(c) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome. (d) It can be used for detection of cleft palate.
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
(a) Barrier methods – Prevent fertilisation
(b) Intra uterine devices – Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilising
capacity of sperms
(c) Hormonal – Prevent/retard entry of contraceptives sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilisation
(d) Vasectomy – Prevents spermatogenesis
Hysteresctomy is surgical removal of :
(a) Prostate gland
(b) Vas-deference
(c) Mammary glands
d) Uterus
Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as
(a) implantation of embryo at site other than uterus.
(b) implantation of defective embryo in the uterus.
(c) pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance.
(d) pregnancies with genetic abnormality.
A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is:
(a) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(b) Gamete internal fertilisation and transfer
(c) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
(d) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which
(a) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up.
(b) ovaries are removed surgically.
(c) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up.
(d) uterus is removed surgically.
Which of the following is a hormone releasing intra uterine device (IUD)?
(a) Multiload 375
(b) LNG – 20
(c) Cervical cap
(d) Vault
Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of :
(a) ovum into the fallopian tube.
(b) zygote into the fallopian tube.
(c) zygote into the uterus.
(d) embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube.
Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices:-
(1)Vaults,LNG-20
(2)Multiload 375,Progestasert
(3)Progestasert,LNG-20
(4)Lippes Loop,Multiload 375
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?
(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Genital warts
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Chlamydiasis
Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?
(1) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
(2) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills
(3) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
(4) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods
Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.
(2) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(3) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.
(4) IUDs suppress gametogenesis.
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specifically affect reproductive organs?
(1) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
(2) Syphilis and Genital herpes
(3) AIDS and Hepatitis B
(4) Chlamydiasis and AIDS
Which of the following STDs are not curable?
(1) Genital herpes, Hepatitis B, HIV infection
(2) Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital warts
(3) HIV, Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis
(4) Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis B
Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogens can be used as a contraceptive in the form of –
(1) Implants only
(2) Injections only
(3) Pills, injections and implants
(4) Pills only
Select the option including all sexually transmitted disease
1) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
2) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
3) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
4) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
1) GIFT and ICSI
2) ZIFT and IUT
3) GIFT and ZIFT
4) ICSI and ZIFT
Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II
Vaults i. Entry of sperm through cervix is blocked
IUDs ii.. Removal of Vas deferens
Vasectomy iii. Phagocytosis of sperms within Uterus
Tubectomy iv. Removal of fallopian tube
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 2. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 4. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Veneral diseases can spread through:
a) Using sterile needles
b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
c) Kissing
d) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) (b), (c) and (d) only
2) (b) and (c) only
3) (a) and (c)
4) (a), (b) and (c) only
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?
1) LNG 20
2) Cu 7
3) Multiload 875
4) CuT
Lippe’s loop is a type of contraceptive used as:
1) Cervical barrier
2) Vault barrier
3) Non-Medicated IUD
4) Copper releasing IUD
Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation and Implantation
(b) Contraceptive pills (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus
(c) Intra Uterine Devices (iii) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition
(d) Lactational Amenorrhea (iv) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (a) –(iv), (b) –(i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
2) (a) –(iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
3) (a) –(ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
4) (a) –(iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)